SOUTH COLLEGE
NSG 5544 Exam 3
Questions and Answers | 2026/2027 Update | 100% Correct
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
75 Questions 90 Minutes 80% Passing 100% Correct
Sections:
1. Neurological Disorders (15 questions)
2. Endocrine Disorders (15 questions)
3. Renal and Urologic Disorders (15 questions)
4. Reproductive and Genetic Disorders (15 questions)
Instructions
5. Integumentary and Connective Tissue Disorders (15 questions)
This practice exam contains 75 multiple-choice questions divided into 5 sections. Select the single best answer
for each question. Each question has only one correct response. You have 90 minutes to complete the exam. A
passing score of 80% (60 correct out of 75) is required. Read each question carefully before selecting your
answer. Review the rationale provided for each question to enhance your understanding of the key concepts
being tested.
NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 38
,Section 1: Neurological Disorders
Q1. Question 1 of 75
A 62-year-old male presents with sudden onset left-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred
speech that began 45 minutes ago. His blood pressure is 185/110 mmHg, and non-contrast CT of
the head shows no hemorrhage. Which intervention is most time-critical at this point?
A. Initiate intravenous alteplase within the treatment window
B. Start oral aspirin 325 mg immediately
C. Administer intravenous labetalol to lower blood pressure below 140/90
D. Obtain MRI of the brain before any treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IV alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke when given within 3 hours of symptom
onset, provided CT excludes hemorrhage. Aspirin is given after thrombolytic therapy at 24 hours, and
aggressive BP lowering is contraindicated unless exceeding 220/120.
Q2. Question 2 of 75
A 55-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of bilateral hand tremors that worsen with rest
and improve with movement, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia. She has no family history of
movement disorders. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily responsible for her symptoms?
A. Serotonin in the raphe nuclei
B. Dopamine in the substantia nigra pars compacta
C. Acetylcholine in the basal forebrain
D. GABA in the striatum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Parkinson disease results from progressive degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
pars compacta, leading to dopamine depletion in the striatum. The classic motor triad of resting tremor,
rigidity, and bradykinesia reflects disrupted basal ganglia circuitry.
Q3. Question 3 of 75
A 48-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of severe unilateral periorbital pain lasting
30-45 minutes, accompanied by ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, and ptosis. These
episodes occur in clusters over several weeks followed by remission periods. Which pharmacologic
prophylaxis is most effective during the cluster period?
A. Propranolol 80 mg daily
B. Topiramate 100 mg daily
C. Verapamil 360 mg daily
D. Amitriptyline 50 mg daily
Correct Answer: C NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 38
Rationale:
, Section 1: Neurological Disorders (continued)
Q4. Question 4 of 75
A 30-year-old female presents with episodes of bilateral vision loss, paresthesias, and weakness
that occur at different times and affect different anatomical areas over the past year. MRI of the
brain reveals multiple periventricular white matter lesions that enhance with gadolinium. Which
pathophysiologic mechanism underlies her condition?
A. Progressive degeneration of peripheral nerve myelin
B. Ischemic infarction of cerebral white matter
C. Viral encephalitis with secondary demyelination
D. Autoimmune demyelination of central nervous system axons
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by immune-mediated demyelination of CNS
axons, producing disseminated neurological deficits separated in time and space. Peripheral nerve myelin
is affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome, not MS.
Q5. Question 5 of 75
A 70-year-old male presents with progressive memory loss, difficulty with activities of daily living,
and personality changes over the past 8 months. His MMSE score is 18/30. MRI shows diffuse
cortical atrophy with disproportionate hippocampal volume loss. Which neuropathologic finding
confirms the suspected diagnosis at autopsy?
A. Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques
B. Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex
C. Spongiform changes with prion protein accumulation
D. Perivascular infiltrates with lymphocytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Alzheimer disease is characterized by extracellular amyloid-beta plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary
tangles composed of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, particularly in the hippocampus and associative
cortex. Lewy bodies are found in Lewy body dementia.
Q6. Question 6 of 75
A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent unprovoked seizures characterized by an aura of deja vu
followed by lip smacking, hand fumbling, and postictal confusion lasting 10-15 minutes. EEG reveals
interictal spikes in the left mesial temporal lobe. Which term best describes these seizures?
A. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
B. Focal impaired awareness seizures
C. Absence seizures
D. Myoclonic seizures
NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 38
Correct Answer: B
NSG 5544 Exam 3
Questions and Answers | 2026/2027 Update | 100% Correct
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
75 Questions 90 Minutes 80% Passing 100% Correct
Sections:
1. Neurological Disorders (15 questions)
2. Endocrine Disorders (15 questions)
3. Renal and Urologic Disorders (15 questions)
4. Reproductive and Genetic Disorders (15 questions)
Instructions
5. Integumentary and Connective Tissue Disorders (15 questions)
This practice exam contains 75 multiple-choice questions divided into 5 sections. Select the single best answer
for each question. Each question has only one correct response. You have 90 minutes to complete the exam. A
passing score of 80% (60 correct out of 75) is required. Read each question carefully before selecting your
answer. Review the rationale provided for each question to enhance your understanding of the key concepts
being tested.
NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 38
,Section 1: Neurological Disorders
Q1. Question 1 of 75
A 62-year-old male presents with sudden onset left-sided weakness, facial droop, and slurred
speech that began 45 minutes ago. His blood pressure is 185/110 mmHg, and non-contrast CT of
the head shows no hemorrhage. Which intervention is most time-critical at this point?
A. Initiate intravenous alteplase within the treatment window
B. Start oral aspirin 325 mg immediately
C. Administer intravenous labetalol to lower blood pressure below 140/90
D. Obtain MRI of the brain before any treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
IV alteplase is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke when given within 3 hours of symptom
onset, provided CT excludes hemorrhage. Aspirin is given after thrombolytic therapy at 24 hours, and
aggressive BP lowering is contraindicated unless exceeding 220/120.
Q2. Question 2 of 75
A 55-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of bilateral hand tremors that worsen with rest
and improve with movement, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia. She has no family history of
movement disorders. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily responsible for her symptoms?
A. Serotonin in the raphe nuclei
B. Dopamine in the substantia nigra pars compacta
C. Acetylcholine in the basal forebrain
D. GABA in the striatum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Parkinson disease results from progressive degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
pars compacta, leading to dopamine depletion in the striatum. The classic motor triad of resting tremor,
rigidity, and bradykinesia reflects disrupted basal ganglia circuitry.
Q3. Question 3 of 75
A 48-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of severe unilateral periorbital pain lasting
30-45 minutes, accompanied by ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, and ptosis. These
episodes occur in clusters over several weeks followed by remission periods. Which pharmacologic
prophylaxis is most effective during the cluster period?
A. Propranolol 80 mg daily
B. Topiramate 100 mg daily
C. Verapamil 360 mg daily
D. Amitriptyline 50 mg daily
Correct Answer: C NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 38
Rationale:
, Section 1: Neurological Disorders (continued)
Q4. Question 4 of 75
A 30-year-old female presents with episodes of bilateral vision loss, paresthesias, and weakness
that occur at different times and affect different anatomical areas over the past year. MRI of the
brain reveals multiple periventricular white matter lesions that enhance with gadolinium. Which
pathophysiologic mechanism underlies her condition?
A. Progressive degeneration of peripheral nerve myelin
B. Ischemic infarction of cerebral white matter
C. Viral encephalitis with secondary demyelination
D. Autoimmune demyelination of central nervous system axons
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by immune-mediated demyelination of CNS
axons, producing disseminated neurological deficits separated in time and space. Peripheral nerve myelin
is affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome, not MS.
Q5. Question 5 of 75
A 70-year-old male presents with progressive memory loss, difficulty with activities of daily living,
and personality changes over the past 8 months. His MMSE score is 18/30. MRI shows diffuse
cortical atrophy with disproportionate hippocampal volume loss. Which neuropathologic finding
confirms the suspected diagnosis at autopsy?
A. Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques
B. Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex
C. Spongiform changes with prion protein accumulation
D. Perivascular infiltrates with lymphocytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Alzheimer disease is characterized by extracellular amyloid-beta plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary
tangles composed of hyperphosphorylated tau protein, particularly in the hippocampus and associative
cortex. Lewy bodies are found in Lewy body dementia.
Q6. Question 6 of 75
A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent unprovoked seizures characterized by an aura of deja vu
followed by lip smacking, hand fumbling, and postictal confusion lasting 10-15 minutes. EEG reveals
interictal spikes in the left mesial temporal lobe. Which term best describes these seizures?
A. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
B. Focal impaired awareness seizures
C. Absence seizures
D. Myoclonic seizures
NSG 5544 Exam 3 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 38
Correct Answer: B
