OREGON LAW & RULES EXAM
100 Advanced Practice Questions
LPC & LMFT Licensure Preparation
SECTION 1: OREGON REVISED STATUTES & ADMINISTRATIVE RULES
1. Under ORS 675.715, the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists
(OBLPCT) has authority to deny, suspend, or revoke a license when a licensee has:
A) Received a complaint from any member of the public regardless of its merit
B) Engaged in unprofessional conduct, gross negligence, or been convicted of a crime
involving moral turpitude that bears a demonstrable relationship to the practice of
counseling (correct answer)
C) Failed to maintain a private practice office within Oregon state boundaries
D) Declined to provide pro bono services to low-income clients
Rationale: ORS 675.715 defines grounds for disciplinary action. The Board must find that
criminal convictions or unprofessional conduct bear a demonstrable relationship to the practice
— protecting due process while enabling appropriate disciplinary action for conduct that
genuinely affects fitness to practice.
2. Oregon Administrative Rule 833-100-0031 governing LMFT licensure requires that
supervised experience for licensure must be obtained:
A) Only in Oregon-based settings regardless of where the applicant completed graduate
training
B) Under a qualified supervisor, with post-degree hours earned after completing a
qualifying master's or doctoral degree in marriage and family therapy or a related field
(correct answer)
C) Exclusively in outpatient mental health settings to ensure diversity of clinical
experience
D) Only under AAMFT Approved Supervisors without exception
Rationale: OAR 833-100-0031 specifies that supervised experience must be post-degree —
hours earned before degree completion do not count. The supervisor must meet Oregon's
qualification requirements, though AAMFT Approved Supervisor status is one qualifying
pathway, not the exclusive one.
,3. Under Oregon law, a Licensed Professional Counselor (LPC) who suspects child abuse must
report to the Oregon Department of Human Services or law enforcement within:
A) 72 hours of gaining the reasonable suspicion
B) 48 hours, and when the abuse is occurring or has occurred in the preceding 24 hours,
the report must be made immediately by telephone (correct answer)
C) The next business day following the suspicion arising
D) One week if the licensee is consulting with a supervisor about the situation
Rationale: ORS 419B.010 and ORS 419B.015 require mandatory reporters to report
immediately by telephone when abuse is occurring or has occurred within the preceding 24
hours. For other situations, the report must be made within 48 hours. No waiting for supervision
is permitted.
4. Oregon's "elder abuse" mandatory reporting law (ORS 124.060) requires licensed mental
health professionals to report when they have reasonable cause to believe:
A) Only physical abuse of persons 65 or older has occurred
B) Abuse of an elderly person or person with a disability has occurred, including
financial exploitation, emotional abuse, physical abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse (correct
answer)
C) Only neglect of elderly persons residing in licensed facilities
D) Only when the alleged abuser is a family member or caregiver
Rationale: ORS 124.060 defines elder abuse broadly to include: physical,
emotional/psychological, sexual abuse, financial exploitation, neglect, and abandonment. The
reporting duty applies regardless of the setting or the abuser's relationship to the victim.
5. Under OAR 833-100-0060, a licensed counselor or therapist who wishes to use a title other
than their licensed title on business materials must:
A) File an application with the OBLPCT explaining the alternative title
B) Ensure the alternative title does not imply a license or credential the person does not
hold and does not mislead the public about the nature of services provided (correct
answer)
C) Obtain written permission from the Board for each title variation used
D) Only use the exact title as printed on their license certificate
,Rationale: Title protection provisions prevent fraud and consumer confusion. Licensees may use
professional descriptors consistent with their qualifications, but cannot use titles implying
credentials they don't hold or mislead the public about their scope of practice.
6. Oregon's "duty to warn" (Tarasoff-based) obligation for licensed mental health professionals is
codified in ORS 179.505 and requires:
A) Automatic disclosure to law enforcement whenever a client discusses violence
B) Reasonable steps to protect an identifiable potential victim when a client
communicates a serious and imminent threat of physical harm — which may include
warning the victim, law enforcement notification, or other protective measures (correct
answer)
C) Mandatory hospitalization of any client making threatening statements
D) Immediate termination of the therapeutic relationship and notification of the Board
Rationale: Oregon's protective duty is limited to serious, imminent threats to identifiable
victims. The clinician has discretion in choosing protective measures appropriate to the situation
— it is a "duty to protect," not a rigid "duty to warn," consistent with Tarasoff's evolution in
Oregon law.
7. Under ORS 675.715(1)(e), practicing outside the "scope of competence" by an LPC or LMFT
is a ground for disciplinary action. This means:
A) Licensees must practice only the single theoretical orientation they were trained in
during graduate school
B) Licensees must limit practice to areas in which they have adequate education,
supervised experience, consultation, or training — obtaining supervision or referral when
venturing into new areas (correct answer)
C) Any clinical activity not specifically covered in the licensee's graduate curriculum is
prohibited
D) Licensees may practice in any area as long as a current professional liability insurance
policy is maintained
Rationale: Scope of competence is dynamic — licensees may expand competence through
appropriate training and supervision. The ethical obligation requires honest self-assessment and
action (training, supervision, consultation, referral) when approaching areas beyond current
competence.
8. Oregon's "informed consent" requirements for mental health treatment (ORS 109.697 and
ORS 179.505) require that clients be informed of:
, A) Only the diagnosis being assigned to them for insurance purposes
B) The nature of treatment, expected benefits, material risks, alternatives to proposed
treatment, consequences of no treatment, and the right to withdraw consent (correct
answer)
C) Only the cost of services and cancellation policy
D) Only the limits of confidentiality
Rationale: Meaningful informed consent requires clients to have sufficient information to make
autonomous treatment decisions: what the treatment is, why it is being recommended, its risks
and benefits, what alternatives exist, and the right to refuse or withdraw. Diagnosis disclosure is
a component, not the entirety.
9. Under OAR 833-100-0005(35), "psychotherapy" as practiced by LPCs and LMFTs in Oregon
is distinguished from "counseling" primarily by:
A) The setting in which services are provided
B) The depth, duration, and focus on personality reorganization, unconscious processes,
or treatment of mental disorders as defined in the DSM or ICD (correct answer)
C) Whether insurance is billed for the services provided
D) The number of graduate-level practicum hours completed
Rationale: Oregon administrative rules distinguish psychotherapy from counseling based on
depth of treatment — psychotherapy addresses more fundamental personality functioning and
mental disorders, while counseling addresses adjustment and developmental issues, though in
practice the distinction is often fluid.
10. When an Oregon LPC or LMFT receives a subpoena for client records, the clinician must:
A) Immediately comply by releasing all records without client notification
B) Notify the client (unless legally prohibited), seek client authorization, and if
authorization is not obtained, seek legal guidance before releasing records and object to
the subpoena if appropriate (correct answer)
C) Ignore subpoenas unless they are accompanied by a court order
D) Release only a written summary, never the complete clinical record
Rationale: A subpoena alone (without a court order) does not override privilege. The
appropriate response is: notify the client, seek authorization, and if not obtained, consult with an
attorney about asserting privilege on the client's behalf. A court order is different from a
subpoena.
100 Advanced Practice Questions
LPC & LMFT Licensure Preparation
SECTION 1: OREGON REVISED STATUTES & ADMINISTRATIVE RULES
1. Under ORS 675.715, the Oregon Board of Licensed Professional Counselors and Therapists
(OBLPCT) has authority to deny, suspend, or revoke a license when a licensee has:
A) Received a complaint from any member of the public regardless of its merit
B) Engaged in unprofessional conduct, gross negligence, or been convicted of a crime
involving moral turpitude that bears a demonstrable relationship to the practice of
counseling (correct answer)
C) Failed to maintain a private practice office within Oregon state boundaries
D) Declined to provide pro bono services to low-income clients
Rationale: ORS 675.715 defines grounds for disciplinary action. The Board must find that
criminal convictions or unprofessional conduct bear a demonstrable relationship to the practice
— protecting due process while enabling appropriate disciplinary action for conduct that
genuinely affects fitness to practice.
2. Oregon Administrative Rule 833-100-0031 governing LMFT licensure requires that
supervised experience for licensure must be obtained:
A) Only in Oregon-based settings regardless of where the applicant completed graduate
training
B) Under a qualified supervisor, with post-degree hours earned after completing a
qualifying master's or doctoral degree in marriage and family therapy or a related field
(correct answer)
C) Exclusively in outpatient mental health settings to ensure diversity of clinical
experience
D) Only under AAMFT Approved Supervisors without exception
Rationale: OAR 833-100-0031 specifies that supervised experience must be post-degree —
hours earned before degree completion do not count. The supervisor must meet Oregon's
qualification requirements, though AAMFT Approved Supervisor status is one qualifying
pathway, not the exclusive one.
,3. Under Oregon law, a Licensed Professional Counselor (LPC) who suspects child abuse must
report to the Oregon Department of Human Services or law enforcement within:
A) 72 hours of gaining the reasonable suspicion
B) 48 hours, and when the abuse is occurring or has occurred in the preceding 24 hours,
the report must be made immediately by telephone (correct answer)
C) The next business day following the suspicion arising
D) One week if the licensee is consulting with a supervisor about the situation
Rationale: ORS 419B.010 and ORS 419B.015 require mandatory reporters to report
immediately by telephone when abuse is occurring or has occurred within the preceding 24
hours. For other situations, the report must be made within 48 hours. No waiting for supervision
is permitted.
4. Oregon's "elder abuse" mandatory reporting law (ORS 124.060) requires licensed mental
health professionals to report when they have reasonable cause to believe:
A) Only physical abuse of persons 65 or older has occurred
B) Abuse of an elderly person or person with a disability has occurred, including
financial exploitation, emotional abuse, physical abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse (correct
answer)
C) Only neglect of elderly persons residing in licensed facilities
D) Only when the alleged abuser is a family member or caregiver
Rationale: ORS 124.060 defines elder abuse broadly to include: physical,
emotional/psychological, sexual abuse, financial exploitation, neglect, and abandonment. The
reporting duty applies regardless of the setting or the abuser's relationship to the victim.
5. Under OAR 833-100-0060, a licensed counselor or therapist who wishes to use a title other
than their licensed title on business materials must:
A) File an application with the OBLPCT explaining the alternative title
B) Ensure the alternative title does not imply a license or credential the person does not
hold and does not mislead the public about the nature of services provided (correct
answer)
C) Obtain written permission from the Board for each title variation used
D) Only use the exact title as printed on their license certificate
,Rationale: Title protection provisions prevent fraud and consumer confusion. Licensees may use
professional descriptors consistent with their qualifications, but cannot use titles implying
credentials they don't hold or mislead the public about their scope of practice.
6. Oregon's "duty to warn" (Tarasoff-based) obligation for licensed mental health professionals is
codified in ORS 179.505 and requires:
A) Automatic disclosure to law enforcement whenever a client discusses violence
B) Reasonable steps to protect an identifiable potential victim when a client
communicates a serious and imminent threat of physical harm — which may include
warning the victim, law enforcement notification, or other protective measures (correct
answer)
C) Mandatory hospitalization of any client making threatening statements
D) Immediate termination of the therapeutic relationship and notification of the Board
Rationale: Oregon's protective duty is limited to serious, imminent threats to identifiable
victims. The clinician has discretion in choosing protective measures appropriate to the situation
— it is a "duty to protect," not a rigid "duty to warn," consistent with Tarasoff's evolution in
Oregon law.
7. Under ORS 675.715(1)(e), practicing outside the "scope of competence" by an LPC or LMFT
is a ground for disciplinary action. This means:
A) Licensees must practice only the single theoretical orientation they were trained in
during graduate school
B) Licensees must limit practice to areas in which they have adequate education,
supervised experience, consultation, or training — obtaining supervision or referral when
venturing into new areas (correct answer)
C) Any clinical activity not specifically covered in the licensee's graduate curriculum is
prohibited
D) Licensees may practice in any area as long as a current professional liability insurance
policy is maintained
Rationale: Scope of competence is dynamic — licensees may expand competence through
appropriate training and supervision. The ethical obligation requires honest self-assessment and
action (training, supervision, consultation, referral) when approaching areas beyond current
competence.
8. Oregon's "informed consent" requirements for mental health treatment (ORS 109.697 and
ORS 179.505) require that clients be informed of:
, A) Only the diagnosis being assigned to them for insurance purposes
B) The nature of treatment, expected benefits, material risks, alternatives to proposed
treatment, consequences of no treatment, and the right to withdraw consent (correct
answer)
C) Only the cost of services and cancellation policy
D) Only the limits of confidentiality
Rationale: Meaningful informed consent requires clients to have sufficient information to make
autonomous treatment decisions: what the treatment is, why it is being recommended, its risks
and benefits, what alternatives exist, and the right to refuse or withdraw. Diagnosis disclosure is
a component, not the entirety.
9. Under OAR 833-100-0005(35), "psychotherapy" as practiced by LPCs and LMFTs in Oregon
is distinguished from "counseling" primarily by:
A) The setting in which services are provided
B) The depth, duration, and focus on personality reorganization, unconscious processes,
or treatment of mental disorders as defined in the DSM or ICD (correct answer)
C) Whether insurance is billed for the services provided
D) The number of graduate-level practicum hours completed
Rationale: Oregon administrative rules distinguish psychotherapy from counseling based on
depth of treatment — psychotherapy addresses more fundamental personality functioning and
mental disorders, while counseling addresses adjustment and developmental issues, though in
practice the distinction is often fluid.
10. When an Oregon LPC or LMFT receives a subpoena for client records, the clinician must:
A) Immediately comply by releasing all records without client notification
B) Notify the client (unless legally prohibited), seek client authorization, and if
authorization is not obtained, seek legal guidance before releasing records and object to
the subpoena if appropriate (correct answer)
C) Ignore subpoenas unless they are accompanied by a court order
D) Release only a written summary, never the complete clinical record
Rationale: A subpoena alone (without a court order) does not override privilege. The
appropriate response is: notify the client, seek authorization, and if not obtained, consult with an
attorney about asserting privilege on the client's behalf. A court order is different from a
subpoena.
