NURS 5433 Mock Test: Hypercoagulable States & Thromboembolic Disorders
Questions And Answers With Complete Solution
1. What is the primary risk factor for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Hypotension
B) Smoking
C) Prolonged immobilization
D) Hyperlipidemia
2. Which of the following is most associated with Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
A) Obesity
B) A thrombus traveling from the leg veins
C) Prolonged exercise
D) Arterial plaque rupture
3. Which of the following is part of Virchow’s Triad, a set of conditions that increase the
risk of thrombosis?
A) Hypertension
B) Venous stasis
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypoxia
4. What condition is most commonly associated with Factor V Leiden mutation?
A) Aortic aneurysm
B) Cerebral venous thrombosis
C) Chronic kidney disease
D) Asthma
5. Which is the main difference between provoked and unprovoked DVT?
A) Provoked DVT occurs in the absence of risk factors.
B) Unprovoked DVT occurs with identifiable risk factors.
,C) Provoked DVT is more common after surgery or trauma.
D) Unprovoked DVT is always treated with anticoagulants for a longer duration.
6. A patient with a family history of thrombosis is most likely to have which condition?
A) Protein C deficiency
B) Factor V Leiden mutation
C) Severe liver disease
D) Heart failure
7. Which medication is most commonly associated with an increased risk of DVT due to
hypercoagulability?
A) Insulin
B) Antihistamines
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Beta-blockers
8. Which of the following best describes the role of Protein S in preventing thrombosis?
A) It directly breaks down fibrin.
B) It activates Factor Xa.
C) It inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa.
D) It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
9. Which factor is most involved in the pathophysiology of Protein C deficiency?
A) It leads to excessive fibrin formation.
B) It inhibits thrombin formation.
C) It results in decreased inactivation of Factors Va and VIIIa.
D) It increases the breakdown of fibrinogen.
10. Which clinical manifestation is commonly seen in a patient with deep vein thrombosis
(DVT)?
, A) Shortness of breath
B) Chest pain radiating to the left arm
C) Swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected leg
D) Severe headache and blurred vision
11. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for managing acute deep vein
thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Compression stockings only
B) Thrombolytics and anticoagulants
C) Antibiotics
D) Corticosteroids
12. What condition is associated with increased risk for DVT due to the loss of natural
anticoagulants?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Prothrombin gene mutation
C) Protein S deficiency
D) Atrial fibrillation
13. What is the main cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) Air embolism
B) Fat embolism
C) Thrombus from the leg veins
D) Gas embolism
14. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Factor V Leiden
mutation?
A) Factor V is resistant to degradation by Protein C, leading to prolonged clotting.
B) Factor V is deficient, preventing clotting.
C) Protein C resistance leads to clot breakdown.
D) Factor V is essential for fibrinogen conversion to fibrin.
Questions And Answers With Complete Solution
1. What is the primary risk factor for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Hypotension
B) Smoking
C) Prolonged immobilization
D) Hyperlipidemia
2. Which of the following is most associated with Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
A) Obesity
B) A thrombus traveling from the leg veins
C) Prolonged exercise
D) Arterial plaque rupture
3. Which of the following is part of Virchow’s Triad, a set of conditions that increase the
risk of thrombosis?
A) Hypertension
B) Venous stasis
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypoxia
4. What condition is most commonly associated with Factor V Leiden mutation?
A) Aortic aneurysm
B) Cerebral venous thrombosis
C) Chronic kidney disease
D) Asthma
5. Which is the main difference between provoked and unprovoked DVT?
A) Provoked DVT occurs in the absence of risk factors.
B) Unprovoked DVT occurs with identifiable risk factors.
,C) Provoked DVT is more common after surgery or trauma.
D) Unprovoked DVT is always treated with anticoagulants for a longer duration.
6. A patient with a family history of thrombosis is most likely to have which condition?
A) Protein C deficiency
B) Factor V Leiden mutation
C) Severe liver disease
D) Heart failure
7. Which medication is most commonly associated with an increased risk of DVT due to
hypercoagulability?
A) Insulin
B) Antihistamines
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Beta-blockers
8. Which of the following best describes the role of Protein S in preventing thrombosis?
A) It directly breaks down fibrin.
B) It activates Factor Xa.
C) It inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa.
D) It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
9. Which factor is most involved in the pathophysiology of Protein C deficiency?
A) It leads to excessive fibrin formation.
B) It inhibits thrombin formation.
C) It results in decreased inactivation of Factors Va and VIIIa.
D) It increases the breakdown of fibrinogen.
10. Which clinical manifestation is commonly seen in a patient with deep vein thrombosis
(DVT)?
, A) Shortness of breath
B) Chest pain radiating to the left arm
C) Swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected leg
D) Severe headache and blurred vision
11. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for managing acute deep vein
thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Compression stockings only
B) Thrombolytics and anticoagulants
C) Antibiotics
D) Corticosteroids
12. What condition is associated with increased risk for DVT due to the loss of natural
anticoagulants?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Prothrombin gene mutation
C) Protein S deficiency
D) Atrial fibrillation
13. What is the main cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) Air embolism
B) Fat embolism
C) Thrombus from the leg veins
D) Gas embolism
14. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Factor V Leiden
mutation?
A) Factor V is resistant to degradation by Protein C, leading to prolonged clotting.
B) Factor V is deficient, preventing clotting.
C) Protein C resistance leads to clot breakdown.
D) Factor V is essential for fibrinogen conversion to fibrin.
