PORTAGE LEARNING
BIOD 152 Final Exam
Essential Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Lab
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
100 Questions | 120 Minutes | 80% Passing Score | Final Exam
Table of Contents
Section 1: Endocrine System -- Questions 1-17 (17 Questions)
Section 2: Cardiovascular System: Blood & Heart -- Questions 18-34 (17 Questions)
Section 3: Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels & Circulation -- Questions 35-51 (17 Questions)
Section 4: Lymphatic & Immune Systems -- Questions 52-68 (17 Questions)
Section 5: Respiratory System -- Questions 69-84 (16 Questions)
Section 6: Digestive, Urinary & Reproductive Systems -- Questions 85-100 (16 Questions)
Read each question carefully. Select the ONE best answer. Review the rationale after answering to
reinforce your understanding. This practice exam covers the complete BIOD 152 curriculum for the
2026/2027 academic year. Manage your time to complete all 100 questions within the 120-minute
allotment. A score of 80% or higher is required to pass.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 42
,Section 1: Endocrine System -- 2026/2027
Questions 1-17 | 17 Questions
Q1. Question 1 of 100
A 42-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight gain, a rounded face, and purple
striae on her abdomen. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cortisol levels that do not suppress
with low-dose dexamethasone. The hormone primarily responsible for these findings is
secreted by which part of the adrenal gland?
A. Adrenal cortex zona fasciculata
B. Adrenal medulla chromaffin cells
C. Adrenal cortex zona glomerulosa
D. Adrenal cortex zona reticularis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Cortisol is produced by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex, and its overproduction leads to
Cushing syndrome. The zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone, not cortisol, so it would not explain
the elevated cortisol levels.
Q2. Question 2 of 100
A 35-year-old man reports chronic thirst and frequent urination. His blood glucose is
normal, but his urine osmolality remains low even after water deprivation testing. The most
likely cause of his condition involves deficient secretion from which endocrine structure?
A. Posterior pituitary releasing oxytocin
B. Posterior pituitary releasing antidiuretic hormone
C. Anterior pituitary releasing growth hormone
D. Anterior pituitary releasing prolactin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Diabetes insipidus results from deficient ADH secretion by the posterior pituitary, leading to inability to
concentrate urine. Growth hormone deficiency would cause different symptoms such as growth
retardation, not polyuria and polydipsia.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 42
,Q3. Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old woman develops a palpable thyroid nodule and laboratory findings show
elevated T3 and T4 with suppressed TSH. She reports heat intolerance, tremor, and weight
loss. The suppressed TSH in this patient is best explained by which mechanism?
A. Positive feedback from elevated T3 on the anterior pituitary
B. Autoimmune destruction of TSH-producing cells
C. Negative feedback from elevated thyroid hormones on the anterior pituitary
D. Decreased TRH secretion due to hypothalamic compression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Elevated T3 and T4 exert negative feedback on the anterior pituitary to suppress TSH release, which is
the classic finding in hyperthyroidism. Positive feedback does not operate in the
hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis under normal conditions.
Q4. Question 4 of 100
A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with muscle cramps, paresthesias,
and a serum calcium of 7.2 mg/dL. His parathyroid hormone level is elevated. The low
serum calcium in this patient most directly results from which mechanism?
A. Excessive calcitonin secretion from the thyroid
B. Inadequate dietary calcium intake alone
C. Impaired renal activation of vitamin D reducing intestinal calcium absorption
D. Parathyroid hormone resistance at the bone level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, reducing
intestinal calcium absorption and causing hypocalcemia. Excessive calcitonin is a rare cause of
hypocalcemia and would not explain the elevated PTH level seen here.
Q5. Question 5 of 100
A 14-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with deep,
rapid breathing and a fruity odor on his breath. His blood glucose is 480 mg/dL and arterial
pH is 7.18. The metabolic acidosis in this condition is primarily caused by which process?
A. Excessive renal bicarbonate wasting due to hyperfiltration
B. Accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism
C. Overproduction of ketoacids from fatty acid breakdown
D. Inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions
Correct Answer: A
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
, Rationale:
Diabetic ketoacidosis results from insulin deficiency causing uncontrolled lipolysis and ketogenesis,
producing acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate that lower blood pH. Lactic acidosis would be a
separate process and does not explain the fruity breath odor characteristic of ketone production.
Q6. Question 6 of 100
A 50-year-old woman presents with severe fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation of her
skin, and hyponatremia. Blood tests reveal low cortisol and high ACTH. This clinical picture
is most consistent with which endocrine disorder?
A. Secondary adrenal insufficiency from pituitary failure
B. Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)
C. Cushing disease from an ACTH-secreting adenoma
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Addison disease involves primary adrenal cortex destruction, causing low cortisol and high ACTH from
loss of negative feedback, with hyperpigmentation due to ACTH-driven melanocyte stimulation.
Secondary adrenal insufficiency would show low ACTH and absent hyperpigmentation.
Q7. Question 7 of 100
A 30-year-old woman complains of headaches and visual field disturbances. MRI reveals a
pituitary macroadenoma. Her prolactin level is markedly elevated. The visual symptoms
occur because the tumor compresses which structure?
A. Optic nerve within the orbital cavity
B. Oculomotor nerve at the cavernous sinus
C. Optic chiasm above the pituitary gland
D. Lateral geniculate body in the thalamus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Pituitary macroadenomas compress the optic chiasm, which lies superior to the pituitary gland, causing
bitemporal hemianopia. Compression of the optic nerve would cause unilateral vision loss, not the
classic bitemporal pattern seen with chiasmal compression.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
BIOD 152 Final Exam
Essential Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Lab
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
100 Questions | 120 Minutes | 80% Passing Score | Final Exam
Table of Contents
Section 1: Endocrine System -- Questions 1-17 (17 Questions)
Section 2: Cardiovascular System: Blood & Heart -- Questions 18-34 (17 Questions)
Section 3: Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels & Circulation -- Questions 35-51 (17 Questions)
Section 4: Lymphatic & Immune Systems -- Questions 52-68 (17 Questions)
Section 5: Respiratory System -- Questions 69-84 (16 Questions)
Section 6: Digestive, Urinary & Reproductive Systems -- Questions 85-100 (16 Questions)
Read each question carefully. Select the ONE best answer. Review the rationale after answering to
reinforce your understanding. This practice exam covers the complete BIOD 152 curriculum for the
2026/2027 academic year. Manage your time to complete all 100 questions within the 120-minute
allotment. A score of 80% or higher is required to pass.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 42
,Section 1: Endocrine System -- 2026/2027
Questions 1-17 | 17 Questions
Q1. Question 1 of 100
A 42-year-old woman presents with unexplained weight gain, a rounded face, and purple
striae on her abdomen. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cortisol levels that do not suppress
with low-dose dexamethasone. The hormone primarily responsible for these findings is
secreted by which part of the adrenal gland?
A. Adrenal cortex zona fasciculata
B. Adrenal medulla chromaffin cells
C. Adrenal cortex zona glomerulosa
D. Adrenal cortex zona reticularis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Cortisol is produced by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex, and its overproduction leads to
Cushing syndrome. The zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone, not cortisol, so it would not explain
the elevated cortisol levels.
Q2. Question 2 of 100
A 35-year-old man reports chronic thirst and frequent urination. His blood glucose is
normal, but his urine osmolality remains low even after water deprivation testing. The most
likely cause of his condition involves deficient secretion from which endocrine structure?
A. Posterior pituitary releasing oxytocin
B. Posterior pituitary releasing antidiuretic hormone
C. Anterior pituitary releasing growth hormone
D. Anterior pituitary releasing prolactin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Diabetes insipidus results from deficient ADH secretion by the posterior pituitary, leading to inability to
concentrate urine. Growth hormone deficiency would cause different symptoms such as growth
retardation, not polyuria and polydipsia.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 42
,Q3. Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old woman develops a palpable thyroid nodule and laboratory findings show
elevated T3 and T4 with suppressed TSH. She reports heat intolerance, tremor, and weight
loss. The suppressed TSH in this patient is best explained by which mechanism?
A. Positive feedback from elevated T3 on the anterior pituitary
B. Autoimmune destruction of TSH-producing cells
C. Negative feedback from elevated thyroid hormones on the anterior pituitary
D. Decreased TRH secretion due to hypothalamic compression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Elevated T3 and T4 exert negative feedback on the anterior pituitary to suppress TSH release, which is
the classic finding in hyperthyroidism. Positive feedback does not operate in the
hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis under normal conditions.
Q4. Question 4 of 100
A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with muscle cramps, paresthesias,
and a serum calcium of 7.2 mg/dL. His parathyroid hormone level is elevated. The low
serum calcium in this patient most directly results from which mechanism?
A. Excessive calcitonin secretion from the thyroid
B. Inadequate dietary calcium intake alone
C. Impaired renal activation of vitamin D reducing intestinal calcium absorption
D. Parathyroid hormone resistance at the bone level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, reducing
intestinal calcium absorption and causing hypocalcemia. Excessive calcitonin is a rare cause of
hypocalcemia and would not explain the elevated PTH level seen here.
Q5. Question 5 of 100
A 14-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with deep,
rapid breathing and a fruity odor on his breath. His blood glucose is 480 mg/dL and arterial
pH is 7.18. The metabolic acidosis in this condition is primarily caused by which process?
A. Excessive renal bicarbonate wasting due to hyperfiltration
B. Accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism
C. Overproduction of ketoacids from fatty acid breakdown
D. Inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions
Correct Answer: A
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
, Rationale:
Diabetic ketoacidosis results from insulin deficiency causing uncontrolled lipolysis and ketogenesis,
producing acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate that lower blood pH. Lactic acidosis would be a
separate process and does not explain the fruity breath odor characteristic of ketone production.
Q6. Question 6 of 100
A 50-year-old woman presents with severe fatigue, hypotension, hyperpigmentation of her
skin, and hyponatremia. Blood tests reveal low cortisol and high ACTH. This clinical picture
is most consistent with which endocrine disorder?
A. Secondary adrenal insufficiency from pituitary failure
B. Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)
C. Cushing disease from an ACTH-secreting adenoma
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Addison disease involves primary adrenal cortex destruction, causing low cortisol and high ACTH from
loss of negative feedback, with hyperpigmentation due to ACTH-driven melanocyte stimulation.
Secondary adrenal insufficiency would show low ACTH and absent hyperpigmentation.
Q7. Question 7 of 100
A 30-year-old woman complains of headaches and visual field disturbances. MRI reveals a
pituitary macroadenoma. Her prolactin level is markedly elevated. The visual symptoms
occur because the tumor compresses which structure?
A. Optic nerve within the orbital cavity
B. Oculomotor nerve at the cavernous sinus
C. Optic chiasm above the pituitary gland
D. Lateral geniculate body in the thalamus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Pituitary macroadenomas compress the optic chiasm, which lies superior to the pituitary gland, causing
bitemporal hemianopia. Compression of the optic nerve would cause unilateral vision loss, not the
classic bitemporal pattern seen with chiasmal compression.
BIOD 152 A&P II -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
