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HESI RN EXIT EXAM V1-V7 COMPLETE EDITION 2026/2027 | Real Questions & Verified Answers | Practical Nursing Prep | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass the HESI RN Exit Exam on your first attempt with this complete edition featuring Versions 1 through 7 for 2026/2027. This A+ Graded resource contains real questions and verified answers across all seven versions of the HESI RN Exit Exam. Covering all key nursing content domains including medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology and medication administration, maternal-newborn nursing, pediatric nursing, psychiatric-mental health nursing, fundamentals of nursing, critical care and emergency nursing, community health nursing, leadership and management, prioritization and delegation, safety and infection control, health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity, physiological integrity, reduction of risk potential, and physiological adaptation, each answer includes clear rationales to reinforce clinical judgment and NCLEX-style reasoning. Perfect for practical nursing students and RN candidates preparing for the HESI Exit Exam. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently prepare for your HESI RN Exit Exam using Versions 1-7. Download your complete HESI RN Exit Exam V1-V7 Complete Edition instantly!

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HESI RN EXIT EXAM V1-V7 COMPLETE EDITION 2026/2027 |
Real Questions & Verified Answers | Practical Nursing Prep
| Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

VERSION 1 (V1): Safe & Effective Care Environment - Management of Care +
Safety/Infection Control (Q1-50)

Subsection: Management of Care (Delegation, Prioritization, Legal/Ethics) (Q1-
30)

Q1. The charge nurse is assigning patients for the shift. Which patient is most
appropriate to assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

A. A patient admitted 2 hours ago with chest pain requiring initial assessment
B. A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes requiring diabetic teaching
C. A patient with stable heart failure requiring routine vital signs and medication
administration
D. A patient with a new tracheostomy requiring suctioning and sterile technique

Correct Answer: C. A patient with stable heart failure requiring routine vital signs
and medication administration [CORRECT] Rationale: LPNs can care for stable
patients with predictable outcomes; initial assessments, diabetic teaching, and
complex sterile procedures require RN scope. Bates' Guide supports scope-based
delegation.

Correct Answer: C




Q2. A nurse receives report on four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess
first?

A. A patient with a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg scheduled for discharge
B. A patient with a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L awaiting cardiac monitoring
C. A patient with a pain rating of 6/10 requesting analgesia
D. A patient with a blood glucose of 210 mg/dL after breakfast

,2



Correct Answer: B. A patient with a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L awaiting cardiac
monitoring [CORRECT] Rationale: Using ABCs and Maslow, hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5)
causes life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and takes priority over pain, stable
hypertension, and moderate hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: B




Q3. Which task can the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

A. Reinforcing teaching about wound care to a patient being discharged
B. Measuring and recording intake and output for a patient with heart failure
C. Assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection
D. Administering oral medications to a patient with pneumonia

Correct Answer: B. Measuring and recording intake and output for a patient with
heart failure [CORRECT] Rationale: UAPs can perform routine data collection (I&O,
vital signs, ambulation); teaching reinforcement, assessment, and medication
administration require licensed personnel.

Correct Answer: B




Q4. A patient with terminal cancer requests a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
patient's adult child demands the physician be called to revoke it. What is the nurse's
best action?

A. Honor the child's request and call the physician immediately
B. Verify the patient has a durable power of attorney for healthcare and respect the
patient's autonomy if competent
C. Refuse to discuss the DNR with the family and leave the room
D. Initiate a full code status until the family reaches consensus

Correct Answer: B. Verify the patient has a durable power of attorney for
healthcare and respect the patient's autonomy if competent [CORRECT] Rationale:
A competent patient's autonomous wishes take precedence; the nurse verifies

,3



advance directive status and supports patient self-determination while facilitating
family communication.

Correct Answer: B




Q5. A medication error occurs when a patient receives the wrong antibiotic. After
ensuring patient safety, what is the nurse's next priority?

A. Document the error in the patient's medical record with full details
B. Complete an incident report and notify the nurse manager
C. Call the risk management department before informing the patient
D. Ask the pharmacy to change the order to match what was given

Correct Answer: B. Complete an incident report and notify the nurse manager
[CORRECT] Rationale: Incident reports are completed for quality improvement and
are never documented in the medical record; the patient must be informed, but
incident reporting follows immediate safety interventions.

Correct Answer: B




Q6. A nurse in the emergency department is triaging patients after a multi-vehicle
accident. Which patient should receive care first?

A. A patient with a closed fracture of the right arm and moderate pain
B. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 and unequal pupils
C. A patient with a superficial laceration requiring 5 sutures
D. A patient with an ankle sprain and inability to bear weight

Correct Answer: B. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 and unequal
pupils [CORRECT] Rationale: Disaster/ED triage prioritizes life-threatening conditions
using ABCs; altered mental status with unequal pupils indicates increased intracranial
pressure requiring immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: B

, 4




Q7. A patient is scheduled for surgery. Who is responsible for obtaining informed
consent?

A. The nurse who witnesses the signature
B. The surgeon performing the procedure
C. The anesthesiologist administering sedation
D. The charge nurse verifying the surgical site

Correct Answer: B. The surgeon performing the procedure [CORRECT] Rationale:
The physician performing the procedure must explain risks, benefits, and alternatives
to obtain informed consent; the nurse witnesses signature and verifies understanding
but does not obtain consent.

Correct Answer: B




Q8. A nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis on airborne precautions. Which
PPE is required when entering the room?

A. Surgical mask and gloves
B. N95 respirator and gloves
C. N95 respirator, gloves, and gown
D. N95 respirator, gloves, gown, and eye protection

Correct Answer: B. N95 respirator and gloves [CORRECT] Rationale: Airborne
precautions require N95 respirator for airborne droplet nuclei; gloves are standard,
but gown and eye protection are only needed if contact with bodily fluids is
anticipated.

Correct Answer: B




Q9. A patient with Clostridioides difficile infection requires transmission-based
precautions. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

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