CFT MONITOR CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027 | Functional
Training Complete Q&A | Updated Test Bank | Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Functional Movement Screening & Biomechanical Assessment (Q1-16)
Q1. During a Functional Movement Screen (FMS), a client performs the overhead squat
and their heels rise off the ground while their arms fall forward simultaneously.
According to FMS 0-3 scoring criteria, what score should be assigned?
A. 0 - Pain is experienced during the movement
B. 1 - Cannot perform a modified version of the pattern
C. 2 - Performs the pattern with compensation
D. 3 - Performs the pattern without compensation
Correct format: C. 2 - Performs the pattern with compensation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Rising heels and falling arms are classic compensations during the overhead
squat; a score of 2 indicates the pattern is completed but with observable
compensations. A score of 3 requires no compensations, while 1 indicates inability to
perform even a modified version.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A 42-year-old client scores a 1 on the FMS active straight-leg raise (ASLR) on the left
side. Which limitation should the CFT Monitor prioritize identifying first before designing
corrective exercise?
A. Core stability deficiency
B. Hip flexor tightness on the right side
,C. Hamstring mobility or hip flexion limitation on the left side
D. Thoracic spine rotation restriction
Correct format: C. Hamstring mobility or hip flexion limitation on the left side [CORRECT]
Rationale: The ASLR primarily assesses hamstring flexibility and hip flexion mobility on
the tested leg; a score of 1 indicates significant mobility limitation that must be
addressed before stability work. Core stability (A) is secondary to mobility in this
pattern, and thoracic rotation (D) is not assessed by the ASLR.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. While analyzing video footage of a client performing a single-leg Romanian deadlift,
the CFT Monitor observes the client's pelvis rotating downward toward the unsupported
leg and the torso twisting to maintain balance. What is the PRIMARY biomechanical
fault being demonstrated?
A. Inadequate ankle dorsiflexion on the stance leg
B. Ipsilateral hip abductor and contralateral hip adductor weakness causing frontal
plane instability
C. Excessive knee valgus during the lowering phase
D. Overactive quadriceps dominance on the stance leg
Correct format: B. Ipsilateral hip abductor and contralateral hip adductor weakness
causing frontal plane instability [CORRECT]
Rationale: Pelvic drop toward the unsupported leg (Trendelenburg sign) indicates
ipsilateral hip abductor weakness and contralateral adductor weakness, creating frontal
plane instability during single-leg stance. Ankle dorsiflexion (A) would cause knee or
trunk forward compensation, not pelvic rotation.
Correct Answer: B
,Q4. A client demonstrates a 2 on the FMS rotary stability test, showing compensation by
losing three points of contact. What does this score indicate about the client's core
function?
A. The client has pain during the test and requires medical referral
B. The client cannot perform the pattern even with assistance
C. The client completes the pattern but uses compensatory strategies to do so
D. The client demonstrates perfect core stability and rotary control
Correct format: C. The client completes the pattern but uses compensatory strategies
to do so [CORRECT]
Rationale: An FMS score of 2 specifically means the pattern is completed but with
compensations such as losing points of contact; a score of 1 would indicate inability to
perform even a modified version, while 0 indicates pain. Perfect execution without
compensation would score a 3.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. During video analysis of a client's push-up pattern, the CFT Monitor notices the
client's hips sag toward the floor as they press up from the bottom position. What is the
most appropriate immediate corrective strategy?
A. Increase the load by adding a weight plate to the client's back
B. Regress the client to an incline push-up or quadruped position to rebuild anterior core
stability
C. Have the client perform more repetitions to fatigue the core muscles
D. Instruct the client to perform the push-up faster to generate momentum
Correct format: B. Regress the client to an incline push-up or quadruped position to
rebuild anterior core stability [CORRECT]
, Rationale: Hip sag during a push-up indicates anterior core instability; regressing to an
incline or quadruped position reduces the lever arm and allows the client to maintain a
neutral spine while building stability. Adding load (A) or increasing speed (D) would
exacerbate the compensation, and more reps (C) would reinforce poor mechanics.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A client performing the FMS hurdle step test raises their test leg but the foot
contacts the hurdle while the stance leg remains in a neutral alignment. What score
should be recorded?
A. 0 - Pain is present
B. 1 - The client cannot clear the hurdle with the test leg
C. 2 - The client completes the pattern with compensation (foot contact)
D. 3 - The client demonstrates perfect hurdle step mechanics
Correct format: C. 2 - The client completes the pattern with compensation (foot contact)
[CORRECT]
Rationale: Contacting the hurdle with the test leg is a compensation; the pattern is
completed but not perfectly, warranting a score of 2. A score of 1 would indicate
inability to raise the leg to hurdle height, while 3 requires no contact and perfect
alignment.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. In the FMS overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates excessive forward
trunk lean with arms falling forward but maintains heel contact with the ground. Which
joint limitation is MOST likely contributing to this compensation pattern?
A. Ankle dorsiflexion restriction
Training Complete Q&A | Updated Test Bank | Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Functional Movement Screening & Biomechanical Assessment (Q1-16)
Q1. During a Functional Movement Screen (FMS), a client performs the overhead squat
and their heels rise off the ground while their arms fall forward simultaneously.
According to FMS 0-3 scoring criteria, what score should be assigned?
A. 0 - Pain is experienced during the movement
B. 1 - Cannot perform a modified version of the pattern
C. 2 - Performs the pattern with compensation
D. 3 - Performs the pattern without compensation
Correct format: C. 2 - Performs the pattern with compensation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Rising heels and falling arms are classic compensations during the overhead
squat; a score of 2 indicates the pattern is completed but with observable
compensations. A score of 3 requires no compensations, while 1 indicates inability to
perform even a modified version.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A 42-year-old client scores a 1 on the FMS active straight-leg raise (ASLR) on the left
side. Which limitation should the CFT Monitor prioritize identifying first before designing
corrective exercise?
A. Core stability deficiency
B. Hip flexor tightness on the right side
,C. Hamstring mobility or hip flexion limitation on the left side
D. Thoracic spine rotation restriction
Correct format: C. Hamstring mobility or hip flexion limitation on the left side [CORRECT]
Rationale: The ASLR primarily assesses hamstring flexibility and hip flexion mobility on
the tested leg; a score of 1 indicates significant mobility limitation that must be
addressed before stability work. Core stability (A) is secondary to mobility in this
pattern, and thoracic rotation (D) is not assessed by the ASLR.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. While analyzing video footage of a client performing a single-leg Romanian deadlift,
the CFT Monitor observes the client's pelvis rotating downward toward the unsupported
leg and the torso twisting to maintain balance. What is the PRIMARY biomechanical
fault being demonstrated?
A. Inadequate ankle dorsiflexion on the stance leg
B. Ipsilateral hip abductor and contralateral hip adductor weakness causing frontal
plane instability
C. Excessive knee valgus during the lowering phase
D. Overactive quadriceps dominance on the stance leg
Correct format: B. Ipsilateral hip abductor and contralateral hip adductor weakness
causing frontal plane instability [CORRECT]
Rationale: Pelvic drop toward the unsupported leg (Trendelenburg sign) indicates
ipsilateral hip abductor weakness and contralateral adductor weakness, creating frontal
plane instability during single-leg stance. Ankle dorsiflexion (A) would cause knee or
trunk forward compensation, not pelvic rotation.
Correct Answer: B
,Q4. A client demonstrates a 2 on the FMS rotary stability test, showing compensation by
losing three points of contact. What does this score indicate about the client's core
function?
A. The client has pain during the test and requires medical referral
B. The client cannot perform the pattern even with assistance
C. The client completes the pattern but uses compensatory strategies to do so
D. The client demonstrates perfect core stability and rotary control
Correct format: C. The client completes the pattern but uses compensatory strategies
to do so [CORRECT]
Rationale: An FMS score of 2 specifically means the pattern is completed but with
compensations such as losing points of contact; a score of 1 would indicate inability to
perform even a modified version, while 0 indicates pain. Perfect execution without
compensation would score a 3.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. During video analysis of a client's push-up pattern, the CFT Monitor notices the
client's hips sag toward the floor as they press up from the bottom position. What is the
most appropriate immediate corrective strategy?
A. Increase the load by adding a weight plate to the client's back
B. Regress the client to an incline push-up or quadruped position to rebuild anterior core
stability
C. Have the client perform more repetitions to fatigue the core muscles
D. Instruct the client to perform the push-up faster to generate momentum
Correct format: B. Regress the client to an incline push-up or quadruped position to
rebuild anterior core stability [CORRECT]
, Rationale: Hip sag during a push-up indicates anterior core instability; regressing to an
incline or quadruped position reduces the lever arm and allows the client to maintain a
neutral spine while building stability. Adding load (A) or increasing speed (D) would
exacerbate the compensation, and more reps (C) would reinforce poor mechanics.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A client performing the FMS hurdle step test raises their test leg but the foot
contacts the hurdle while the stance leg remains in a neutral alignment. What score
should be recorded?
A. 0 - Pain is present
B. 1 - The client cannot clear the hurdle with the test leg
C. 2 - The client completes the pattern with compensation (foot contact)
D. 3 - The client demonstrates perfect hurdle step mechanics
Correct format: C. 2 - The client completes the pattern with compensation (foot contact)
[CORRECT]
Rationale: Contacting the hurdle with the test leg is a compensation; the pattern is
completed but not perfectly, warranting a score of 2. A score of 1 would indicate
inability to raise the leg to hurdle height, while 3 requires no contact and perfect
alignment.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. In the FMS overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates excessive forward
trunk lean with arms falling forward but maintains heel contact with the ground. Which
joint limitation is MOST likely contributing to this compensation pattern?
A. Ankle dorsiflexion restriction
