RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 1 of 199
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (K+ 6.8 mEq/L) and
ECG changes. The nurse administers intravenous calcium gluconate and prepares for dialysis. Which
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) rectally
B. Prepare to administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
C. Start a continuous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
D. Administer albuterol via nebulization
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia
(K+ 6.8 mEq/L) and ECG changes. The nurse administers intravenous calcium gluconate
and prepares for dialysis. Which additional intervention is most critical to implement
immediately?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) rectally
' B. Prepare to administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
C. Start a continuous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
D. Administer albuterol via nebulization
Correct Answer: B
Insulin and dextrose shift potassium intracellularly within 15-30 minutes, providing rapid reduction to protect the
heart. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium but does not lower potassium. Kayexalate works slowly
(hours) and is not first-line for life-threatening hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate is less effective in CKD.
Albuterol is an adjunct but not the most critical immediate intervention.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 2 of 199
A patient receiving a continuous infusion of heparin develops a platelet count drop from 200,000/mm³ to
50,000/mm³ within 48 hours. The nurse suspects heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which action is
A. Continue heparin and monitor platelet count daily
B. Discontinue heparin and start argatroban infusion
C. Administer protamine sulfate to reverse heparin
D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin)
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient receiving a continuous infusion of heparin develops a platelet count drop from
200,000/mm³ to 50,000/mm³ within 48 hours. The nurse suspects heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue heparin and monitor platelet count daily
' B. Discontinue heparin and start argatroban infusion
C. Administer protamine sulfate to reverse heparin
D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin)
Correct Answer: B
HIT requires immediate cessation of all heparin products due to risk of thrombosis. Argatroban is a direct
thrombin inhibitor approved for HIT. Protamine reverses heparin but does not treat HIT. LMWH has
cross-reactivity with HIT antibodies and is contraindicated. Continuing heparin would worsen the condition.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 3 of 199
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and mean arterial
pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). What is the CPP,
A. CPP 42 mm Hg; elevate head of bed to 30 degrees and administer mannitol
B. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer intravenous fluids to increase MAP
C. CPP 42 mm Hg; administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer sedation and neuromuscular blockade
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP). What is the CPP, and what is the priority intervention?
' A. CPP 42 mm Hg; elevate head of bed to 30 degrees and administer mannitol
B. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer intravenous fluids to increase MAP
C. CPP 42 mm Hg; administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer sedation and neuromuscular blockade
Correct Answer: A
CPP = MAP – ICP = 70 – 28 = 42 mm Hg (normal 60-70). This is critically low, risking brain ischemia. Elevating
HOB promotes venous drainage, and mannitol reduces cerebral edema. Increasing MAP alone without
reducing ICP may worsen edema. Vasopressors might increase ICP if autoregulation is impaired.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 4 of 199
A patient with severe sepsis is started on norepinephrine infusion. The nurse notes the patient's blood pressure
remains 82/45 mm Hg after 1 hour. The prescriber orders a second vasopressor. Which agent is most
A. Dopamine
B. Vasopressin
C. Phenylephrine
D. Epinephrine
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with severe sepsis is started on norepinephrine infusion. The nurse notes the
patient's blood pressure remains 82/45 mm Hg after 1 hour. The prescriber orders a
second vasopressor. Which agent is most appropriate to add?
A. Dopamine
' B. Vasopressin
C. Phenylephrine
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
In septic shock refractory to norepinephrine, vasopressin is recommended as a second-line agent due to
relative vasopressin deficiency. Dopamine has more arrhythmogenic effects and is less preferred.
Phenylephrine is a pure alpha agonist but may cause reflex bradycardia. Epinephrine is reserved for
anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 1 of 199
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (K+ 6.8 mEq/L) and
ECG changes. The nurse administers intravenous calcium gluconate and prepares for dialysis. Which
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) rectally
B. Prepare to administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
C. Start a continuous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
D. Administer albuterol via nebulization
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia
(K+ 6.8 mEq/L) and ECG changes. The nurse administers intravenous calcium gluconate
and prepares for dialysis. Which additional intervention is most critical to implement
immediately?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) rectally
' B. Prepare to administer intravenous insulin and dextrose
C. Start a continuous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
D. Administer albuterol via nebulization
Correct Answer: B
Insulin and dextrose shift potassium intracellularly within 15-30 minutes, providing rapid reduction to protect the
heart. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium but does not lower potassium. Kayexalate works slowly
(hours) and is not first-line for life-threatening hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate is less effective in CKD.
Albuterol is an adjunct but not the most critical immediate intervention.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 2 of 199
A patient receiving a continuous infusion of heparin develops a platelet count drop from 200,000/mm³ to
50,000/mm³ within 48 hours. The nurse suspects heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which action is
A. Continue heparin and monitor platelet count daily
B. Discontinue heparin and start argatroban infusion
C. Administer protamine sulfate to reverse heparin
D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin)
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient receiving a continuous infusion of heparin develops a platelet count drop from
200,000/mm³ to 50,000/mm³ within 48 hours. The nurse suspects heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue heparin and monitor platelet count daily
' B. Discontinue heparin and start argatroban infusion
C. Administer protamine sulfate to reverse heparin
D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin (enoxaparin)
Correct Answer: B
HIT requires immediate cessation of all heparin products due to risk of thrombosis. Argatroban is a direct
thrombin inhibitor approved for HIT. Protamine reverses heparin but does not treat HIT. LMWH has
cross-reactivity with HIT antibodies and is contraindicated. Continuing heparin would worsen the condition.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 3 of 199
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and mean arterial
pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). What is the CPP,
A. CPP 42 mm Hg; elevate head of bed to 30 degrees and administer mannitol
B. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer intravenous fluids to increase MAP
C. CPP 42 mm Hg; administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer sedation and neuromuscular blockade
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP). What is the CPP, and what is the priority intervention?
' A. CPP 42 mm Hg; elevate head of bed to 30 degrees and administer mannitol
B. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer intravenous fluids to increase MAP
C. CPP 42 mm Hg; administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. CPP 98 mm Hg; administer sedation and neuromuscular blockade
Correct Answer: A
CPP = MAP – ICP = 70 – 28 = 42 mm Hg (normal 60-70). This is critically low, risking brain ischemia. Elevating
HOB promotes venous drainage, and mannitol reduces cerebral edema. Increasing MAP alone without
reducing ICP may worsen edema. Vasopressors might increase ICP if autoregulation is impaired.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN
EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati.EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM GU
EDICTOR NCLEX-RN
Question: 4 of 199
A patient with severe sepsis is started on norepinephrine infusion. The nurse notes the patient's blood pressure
remains 82/45 mm Hg after 1 hour. The prescriber orders a second vasopressor. Which agent is most
A. Dopamine
B. Vasopressin
C. Phenylephrine
D. Epinephrine
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A patient with severe sepsis is started on norepinephrine infusion. The nurse notes the
patient's blood pressure remains 82/45 mm Hg after 1 hour. The prescriber orders a
second vasopressor. Which agent is most appropriate to add?
A. Dopamine
' B. Vasopressin
C. Phenylephrine
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
In septic shock refractory to norepinephrine, vasopressin is recommended as a second-line agent due to
relative vasopressin deficiency. Dopamine has more arrhythmogenic effects and is less preferred.
Phenylephrine is a pure alpha agonist but may cause reflex bradycardia. Epinephrine is reserved for
anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest.
PREDICTOR NCLEX-RN EXIT EXAM 2026 | WITH ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN TEST BANK & RATIONALES | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
