RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 1 of 199
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with acute decompensation. The nurse notes jugular
venous distention, bilateral crackles up to the mid-scapulae, and an S3 gallop. The client has been on lisinopril,
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg now.
B. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min to maintain SpO2 >92%.
C. Start a continuous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min.
D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position and limit oral fluids to 1 L per day.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with acute decompensation. The
nurse notes jugular venous distention, bilateral crackles up to the mid-scapulae, and an
S3 gallop. The client has been on lisinopril, metoprolol, and furosemide at home. Which
intervention should the nurse question?
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg now.
B. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min to maintain SpO2 >92%.
' C. Start a continuous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min.
D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position and limit oral fluids to 1 L per day.
Correct Answer: C
Dobutamine is a beta-1 agonist used for acute decompensated heart failure with low cardiac output, but it can
increase myocardial oxygen demand and is not first-line in clients already on beta-blockers (metoprolol). The
nurse should question this because concurrent use may blunt effectiveness and increase arrhythmia risk. The
other interventions are standard: furosemide for volume overload, oxygen for hypoxia, and position/fluid
restriction.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 2 of 199
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The
current aPTT is 90 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). Which of the following actions should the
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin.
D. Continue the current infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving heparin therapy for a
pulmonary embolism. The current aPTT is 90 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds).
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
' B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin.
D. Continue the current infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
Correct Answer: B
An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range, indicating increased bleeding risk. The nurse should
decrease the infusion rate per protocol. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose but is not
indicated unless there is active bleeding or severe elevation. Continuing the current rate would maintain
supratherapeutic levels.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 3 of 199
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol decanoate 50 mg IM every 4 weeks. The nurse observes
the client pacing, rocking, and repeatedly stating, "I have to get the bugs off my skin." Which assessment
A. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg.
B. The client's heart rate is 88/min.
C. The client has a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F).
D. The client's respiratory rate is 16/min.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol decanoate 50 mg IM every 4 weeks.
The nurse observes the client pacing, rocking, and repeatedly stating, "I have to get the
bugs off my skin." Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg.
B. The client's heart rate is 88/min.
' C. The client has a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F).
D. The client's respiratory rate is 16/min.
Correct Answer: C
Hyperthermia in a client on haloperidol (a typical antipsychotic) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a life-threatening emergency characterized by fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental
status. The nurse must discontinue the antipsychotic and provide supportive care. The other vital signs are
within normal limits and do not require immediate intervention.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 4 of 199
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion, fruity breath
odor, and deep, rapid respirations. Capillary blood glucose is 620 mg/dL, serum potassium is 5.8 mEq/L, and
A. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
B. Initiate an insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg/hr.
C. Give intravenous potassium chloride 40 mEq over 2 hours.
D. Start normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with
confusion, fruity breath odor, and deep, rapid respirations. Capillary blood glucose is 620
mg/dL, serum potassium is 5.8 mEq/L, and arterial blood gas shows pH 7.1, PaCO2 22 mm
Hg, HCO3- 8 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates which priority intervention?
A. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
' B. Initiate an insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg/hr.
C. Give intravenous potassium chloride 40 mEq over 2 hours.
D. Start normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
Correct Answer: B
This client is in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The priority is to start an insulin infusion to lower blood glucose and
stop ketogenesis. Sodium bicarbonate is not routinely recommended unless pH <6.9 due to risk of paradoxical
acidosis. Potassium is elevated initially, but will drop with insulin therapy; replacement is needed later. Fluid
resuscitation is important, but insulin is the priority to correct the metabolic acidosis.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 1 of 199
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with acute decompensation. The nurse notes jugular
venous distention, bilateral crackles up to the mid-scapulae, and an S3 gallop. The client has been on lisinopril,
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg now.
B. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min to maintain SpO2 >92%.
C. Start a continuous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min.
D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position and limit oral fluids to 1 L per day.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with acute decompensation. The
nurse notes jugular venous distention, bilateral crackles up to the mid-scapulae, and an
S3 gallop. The client has been on lisinopril, metoprolol, and furosemide at home. Which
intervention should the nurse question?
A. Administer intravenous furosemide 40 mg now.
B. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min to maintain SpO2 >92%.
' C. Start a continuous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min.
D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position and limit oral fluids to 1 L per day.
Correct Answer: C
Dobutamine is a beta-1 agonist used for acute decompensated heart failure with low cardiac output, but it can
increase myocardial oxygen demand and is not first-line in clients already on beta-blockers (metoprolol). The
nurse should question this because concurrent use may blunt effectiveness and increase arrhythmia risk. The
other interventions are standard: furosemide for volume overload, oxygen for hypoxia, and position/fluid
restriction.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 2 of 199
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. The
current aPTT is 90 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). Which of the following actions should the
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin.
D. Continue the current infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving heparin therapy for a
pulmonary embolism. The current aPTT is 90 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds).
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
' B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per 100 units of heparin.
D. Continue the current infusion and recheck aPTT in 6 hours.
Correct Answer: B
An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range, indicating increased bleeding risk. The nurse should
decrease the infusion rate per protocol. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose but is not
indicated unless there is active bleeding or severe elevation. Continuing the current rate would maintain
supratherapeutic levels.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 3 of 199
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol decanoate 50 mg IM every 4 weeks. The nurse observes
the client pacing, rocking, and repeatedly stating, "I have to get the bugs off my skin." Which assessment
A. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg.
B. The client's heart rate is 88/min.
C. The client has a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F).
D. The client's respiratory rate is 16/min.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol decanoate 50 mg IM every 4 weeks.
The nurse observes the client pacing, rocking, and repeatedly stating, "I have to get the
bugs off my skin." Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg.
B. The client's heart rate is 88/min.
' C. The client has a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F).
D. The client's respiratory rate is 16/min.
Correct Answer: C
Hyperthermia in a client on haloperidol (a typical antipsychotic) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a life-threatening emergency characterized by fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental
status. The nurse must discontinue the antipsychotic and provide supportive care. The other vital signs are
within normal limits and do not require immediate intervention.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN
2026 Exam · 199 Questions · With Rationales
ati. 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM PR
REDICTOR EXIT EXAM
Question: 4 of 199
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion, fruity breath
odor, and deep, rapid respirations. Capillary blood glucose is 620 mg/dL, serum potassium is 5.8 mEq/L, and
A. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
B. Initiate an insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg/hr.
C. Give intravenous potassium chloride 40 mEq over 2 hours.
D. Start normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with
confusion, fruity breath odor, and deep, rapid respirations. Capillary blood glucose is 620
mg/dL, serum potassium is 5.8 mEq/L, and arterial blood gas shows pH 7.1, PaCO2 22 mm
Hg, HCO3- 8 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates which priority intervention?
A. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
' B. Initiate an insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg/hr.
C. Give intravenous potassium chloride 40 mEq over 2 hours.
D. Start normal saline at 250 mL/hr.
Correct Answer: B
This client is in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The priority is to start an insulin infusion to lower blood glucose and
stop ketogenesis. Sodium bicarbonate is not routinely recommended unless pH <6.9 due to risk of paradoxical
acidosis. Potassium is elevated initially, but will drop with insulin therapy; replacement is needed later. Fluid
resuscitation is important, but insulin is the priority to correct the metabolic acidosis.
PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 | & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE RN RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS | LEVEL 3 | ATI PROCTORED EXAM
