RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 1 of 200
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (6.8 mEq/L) and ECG changes
showing peaked T waves. The nurse reviews the following prescriptions: IV calcium gluconate, IV regular
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate 10 mL over 2 minutes
B. Administer IV regular insulin 10 units and 50 mL of D50W
C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 g orally
D. Administer IV dextrose 50% 50 mL
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (6.8 mEq/L)
and ECG changes showing peaked T waves. The nurse reviews the following
prescriptions: IV calcium gluconate, IV regular insulin, IV dextrose 50%, and sodium
polystyrene sulfonate. Which prescription should the nurse question?
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate 10 mL over 2 minutes
B. Administer IV regular insulin 10 units and 50 mL of D50W
' C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 g orally
D. Administer IV dextrose 50% 50 mL
Correct Answer: C
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is contraindicated in patients with a serum potassium >6.0 mEq/L
because it acts slowly and can cause intestinal necrosis. The immediate priority is to stabilize the myocardium
with calcium gluconate and shift potassium into cells with insulin and dextrose. Option C is the prescription the
nurse should question.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 2 of 200
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute dyspnea and crackles halfway up the lung fields.
The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the client reports dizziness and has a blood
A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
C. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider
D. Check the serum potassium level
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute dyspnea and crackles halfway
up the lung fields. The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the
client reports dizziness and has a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg. Which action should
the nurse take first?
' A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
C. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider
D. Check the serum potassium level
Correct Answer: A
The client is experiencing hypovolemia from excessive diuresis, leading to hypotension and dizziness. The
priority is to restore intravascular volume with a fluid bolus. Placing the client in high Fowler's may worsen
hypotension, holding the next dose is important but not immediate, and checking potassium is secondary to
hemodynamic stabilization.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 3 of 200
A client with a closed head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure
(MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and determines which
A. Elevate the head of bed to 30 degrees and maintain head midline
B. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg IV as prescribed
C. Prepare for emergent surgical decompression
D. Administer a vasopressor to increase MAP
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a closed head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and a
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP) and determines which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Elevate the head of bed to 30 degrees and maintain head midline
B. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg IV as prescribed
C. Prepare for emergent surgical decompression
' D. Administer a vasopressor to increase MAP
Correct Answer: D
CPP = MAP - ICP = 70 - 28 = 42 mm Hg (normal 60-100). A CPP below 50 indicates cerebral ischemia. While
elevating the head and mannitol are standard, the most immediate intervention is to increase MAP with
vasopressors to improve CPP. Surgical decompression may be needed but is not the first action.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 4 of 200
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis. The
activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds (control 30 seconds). Which finding requires
A. The client reports pain at the infusion site
B. The client has a small bruise on the arm
C. The client's urine is dark red in color
D. The client has a headache and blurred vision
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep
vein thrombosis. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds (control
30 seconds). Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
A. The client reports pain at the infusion site
B. The client has a small bruise on the arm
' C. The client's urine is dark red in color
D. The client has a headache and blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
An aPTT of 120 seconds indicates over-anticoagulation, placing the client at high risk for bleeding. Dark red
urine suggests hematuria, which is a sign of active bleeding and requires immediate intervention such as
holding the heparin and administering protamine sulfate. The other options are less urgent.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 1 of 200
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (6.8 mEq/L) and ECG changes
showing peaked T waves. The nurse reviews the following prescriptions: IV calcium gluconate, IV regular
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate 10 mL over 2 minutes
B. Administer IV regular insulin 10 units and 50 mL of D50W
C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 g orally
D. Administer IV dextrose 50% 50 mL
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is admitted with hyperkalemia (6.8 mEq/L)
and ECG changes showing peaked T waves. The nurse reviews the following
prescriptions: IV calcium gluconate, IV regular insulin, IV dextrose 50%, and sodium
polystyrene sulfonate. Which prescription should the nurse question?
A. Administer IV calcium gluconate 10 mL over 2 minutes
B. Administer IV regular insulin 10 units and 50 mL of D50W
' C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate 15 g orally
D. Administer IV dextrose 50% 50 mL
Correct Answer: C
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is contraindicated in patients with a serum potassium >6.0 mEq/L
because it acts slowly and can cause intestinal necrosis. The immediate priority is to stabilize the myocardium
with calcium gluconate and shift potassium into cells with insulin and dextrose. Option C is the prescription the
nurse should question.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 2 of 200
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute dyspnea and crackles halfway up the lung fields.
The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the client reports dizziness and has a blood
A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
C. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider
D. Check the serum potassium level
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute dyspnea and crackles halfway
up the lung fields. The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the
client reports dizziness and has a blood pressure of 88/56 mm Hg. Which action should
the nurse take first?
' A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
C. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider
D. Check the serum potassium level
Correct Answer: A
The client is experiencing hypovolemia from excessive diuresis, leading to hypotension and dizziness. The
priority is to restore intravascular volume with a fluid bolus. Placing the client in high Fowler's may worsen
hypotension, holding the next dose is important but not immediate, and checking potassium is secondary to
hemodynamic stabilization.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 3 of 200
A client with a closed head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure
(MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and determines which
A. Elevate the head of bed to 30 degrees and maintain head midline
B. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg IV as prescribed
C. Prepare for emergent surgical decompression
D. Administer a vasopressor to increase MAP
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A client with a closed head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mm Hg and a
mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the cerebral perfusion
pressure (CPP) and determines which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Elevate the head of bed to 30 degrees and maintain head midline
B. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg IV as prescribed
C. Prepare for emergent surgical decompression
' D. Administer a vasopressor to increase MAP
Correct Answer: D
CPP = MAP - ICP = 70 - 28 = 42 mm Hg (normal 60-100). A CPP below 50 indicates cerebral ischemia. While
elevating the head and mannitol are standard, the most immediate intervention is to increase MAP with
vasopressors to improve CPP. Surgical decompression may be needed but is not the first action.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
, RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT
ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
2026 Exam · 200 Questions · With Rationales
ati.
CTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | LEV
Question: 4 of 200
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis. The
activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds (control 30 seconds). Which finding requires
A. The client reports pain at the infusion site
B. The client has a small bruise on the arm
C. The client's urine is dark red in color
D. The client has a headache and blurred vision
PREVIOUS CONTINUE
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep
vein thrombosis. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds (control
30 seconds). Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
A. The client reports pain at the infusion site
B. The client has a small bruise on the arm
' C. The client's urine is dark red in color
D. The client has a headache and blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
An aPTT of 120 seconds indicates over-anticoagulation, placing the client at high risk for bleeding. Dark red
urine suggests hematuria, which is a sign of active bleeding and requires immediate intervention such as
holding the heparin and administering protamine sulfate. The other options are less urgent.
DICTOR EXIT ASSESSMENT 2026 | 180 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | FULL RN CONTENT BREAKDOWN & RATIONALES | L
