ATI MED SURG PROCTORED
EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders
1. A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Flattened T waves
B. Prolonged QT intervals
C. Shortened QT intervals
D. Widened QRS complexes
Rationale: Hypocalcemia decreases myocardial contractility and prolongs the
ventricular repolarization phase, resulting in a prolonged QT interval. Flattened T
waves are associated with hypokalemia .
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following client
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should lie down when I take this medication."
B. "I can keep my medication for 1 year before replacing it."
C. "I should discontinue this medication if I develop a headache."
D. "I can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes before seeking attention."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, leading to hypotension and
dizziness; lying down minimizes the risk of falling. The medication should be replaced
every 6 months, and headaches are an expected side effect, not a reason to stop .
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings is expected?
,A. Dependent edema
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure results in increased pulmonary pressure and fluid
leakage into the alveoli, causing crackles (pulmonary congestion). The other options
are signs of right-sided heart failure .
4. A client with unstable angina reports chest pain. Which of the following
characteristics is typical of this condition?
A. Chest pain is relieved soon after resting.
B. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain consistently.
C. Physical exertion does not precipitate the pain.
D. Chest pain lasts for longer than 15 minutes.
Rationale: Unstable angina is unpredictable and occurs at rest or with minimal
exertion. It is not fully relieved by rest or nitroglycerin and usually lasts longer than
15 minutes, indicating a partial coronary artery occlusion .
5. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client who has end-stage renal disease.
Which of the following lab values is most concerning for the nurse monitoring
cardiac function?
A. BUN 80 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 6.5 mg/dL
C. Potassium 6.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.5) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance in
renal failure that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias (peaked T waves, cardiac arrest).
This requires immediate intervention.
6. A nurse is caring for a client following a cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1 L per day.
B. Change the dressing every 8 hours.
C. Keep the client on bed rest for 24 hours.
D. Maintain the client's affected extremity in extension.
Rationale: Keeping the affected leg straight (extension) prevents flexion at the hip,
which reduces the risk of arterial bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture
site. Bed rest is usually for 4-6 hours, not 24 .
7. A client with chronic cancer pain is using a fentanyl patch. The client
suddenly reports severe pain rated a 9/10. How should the nurse document this
, type of pain?
A. Somatic pain
B. Referred pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Breakthrough pain
Rationale: Breakthrough pain is a transient, moderate-to-severe flare of pain that
occurs despite stable, controlled baseline pain management (like long-acting
fentanyl) .
Section 2: Respiratory Disorders
8. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which of the following physical
assessment findings is expected?
A. Bradycardia
B. Barrel chest
C. Hypocapnia
D. Increased oxygen saturation
Rationale: Chronic air trapping in COPD leads to hyperinflation of the lungs, which
flattens the diaphragm and increases the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest,
resulting in a "barrel chest" appearance .
9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about rifampin with a client who has active
tuberculosis. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with antacids to prevent nausea."
B. "I will need to have my blood drawn weekly to check my liver."
C. "You should wear glasses instead of contacts while taking this medication."
D. "I can stop taking this medication when my symptoms disappear."
Rationale: Rifampin causes body fluids (tears, urine, sweat) to turn orange-red. It can
permanently stain soft contact lenses; therefore, glasses are recommended. It must
be taken consistently for 6-9 months, not stopped when symptoms resolve .
10. A client with a chest tube has no bubbling in the suction control chamber.
What is the priority action?
A. Increase the suction pressure.
B. Verify that the suction regulator is on.
C. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
D. Milk the tubing to remove clots.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders
1. A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Flattened T waves
B. Prolonged QT intervals
C. Shortened QT intervals
D. Widened QRS complexes
Rationale: Hypocalcemia decreases myocardial contractility and prolongs the
ventricular repolarization phase, resulting in a prolonged QT interval. Flattened T
waves are associated with hypokalemia .
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the following client
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should lie down when I take this medication."
B. "I can keep my medication for 1 year before replacing it."
C. "I should discontinue this medication if I develop a headache."
D. "I can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes before seeking attention."
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, leading to hypotension and
dizziness; lying down minimizes the risk of falling. The medication should be replaced
every 6 months, and headaches are an expected side effect, not a reason to stop .
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings is expected?
,A. Dependent edema
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure results in increased pulmonary pressure and fluid
leakage into the alveoli, causing crackles (pulmonary congestion). The other options
are signs of right-sided heart failure .
4. A client with unstable angina reports chest pain. Which of the following
characteristics is typical of this condition?
A. Chest pain is relieved soon after resting.
B. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain consistently.
C. Physical exertion does not precipitate the pain.
D. Chest pain lasts for longer than 15 minutes.
Rationale: Unstable angina is unpredictable and occurs at rest or with minimal
exertion. It is not fully relieved by rest or nitroglycerin and usually lasts longer than
15 minutes, indicating a partial coronary artery occlusion .
5. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client who has end-stage renal disease.
Which of the following lab values is most concerning for the nurse monitoring
cardiac function?
A. BUN 80 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 6.5 mg/dL
C. Potassium 6.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.5) is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance in
renal failure that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias (peaked T waves, cardiac arrest).
This requires immediate intervention.
6. A nurse is caring for a client following a cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1 L per day.
B. Change the dressing every 8 hours.
C. Keep the client on bed rest for 24 hours.
D. Maintain the client's affected extremity in extension.
Rationale: Keeping the affected leg straight (extension) prevents flexion at the hip,
which reduces the risk of arterial bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture
site. Bed rest is usually for 4-6 hours, not 24 .
7. A client with chronic cancer pain is using a fentanyl patch. The client
suddenly reports severe pain rated a 9/10. How should the nurse document this
, type of pain?
A. Somatic pain
B. Referred pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Breakthrough pain
Rationale: Breakthrough pain is a transient, moderate-to-severe flare of pain that
occurs despite stable, controlled baseline pain management (like long-acting
fentanyl) .
Section 2: Respiratory Disorders
8. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which of the following physical
assessment findings is expected?
A. Bradycardia
B. Barrel chest
C. Hypocapnia
D. Increased oxygen saturation
Rationale: Chronic air trapping in COPD leads to hyperinflation of the lungs, which
flattens the diaphragm and increases the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest,
resulting in a "barrel chest" appearance .
9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about rifampin with a client who has active
tuberculosis. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will take this medication with antacids to prevent nausea."
B. "I will need to have my blood drawn weekly to check my liver."
C. "You should wear glasses instead of contacts while taking this medication."
D. "I can stop taking this medication when my symptoms disappear."
Rationale: Rifampin causes body fluids (tears, urine, sweat) to turn orange-red. It can
permanently stain soft contact lenses; therefore, glasses are recommended. It must
be taken consistently for 6-9 months, not stopped when symptoms resolve .
10. A client with a chest tube has no bubbling in the suction control chamber.
What is the priority action?
A. Increase the suction pressure.
B. Verify that the suction regulator is on.
C. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
D. Milk the tubing to remove clots.
