NUR 112 FINAL EXAM REVIEW
260+ (Updated 2026) Official-Style Exam Pack | Verified Answers |
Expert-Reviewed
100% Guarantee Pass
📋 DOCUMENT OVERVIEW 264 Qs
The "NUR 112 Final Exam Review" document covers specific topics such as Personal Protective
Equipment (PPE) protocols, fire safety, patient assault and battery, and physical health and autonomy. It
provides a comprehensive review of nursing concepts with 264 questions, each accompanied by a
correct answer and detailed explanations/rationales, including diagrams/images for enhanced
understanding. This document can be used by students to study, review, and deeply understand nursing
concepts, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation.
✓ Verified Answers ✓ Exam Ready ✓ Study Guide
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide
EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Donning PPE order:
CORRECT ANSWER
) Gown
2.) Mask
3.) Goggles / face shield
4.) Gloves
RATIONALE: This order prioritizes protection for the most vulnerable areas of the human body, with the gown providing
overall coverage, followed by the mask to safeguard the face and respiratory system, then goggles/face shield to protect
the eyes, and finally gloves to prevent skin contact. The sequence also ensures that the innermost layers of PPE are put
on last, preventing contamination from outer layers and reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
QUESTION 2
Doffing PPE:
CORRECT ANSWER
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 82
, ) Gloves
2.) Goggles / face shield
3.) Gown
4.) Mask
RATIONALE: When doffing PPE, one must first remove the outermost layer, which would be the gown, to prevent
contamination from spreading. The remaining items, gloves, goggles/face shield, and mask, should then be removed in
a specific order to prevent the outer layer from coming into contact with the face and other areas that were previously
protected, thereby maintaining a clean and controlled environment.
QUESTION 3
What is the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher?
CORRECT ANSWER
Pull pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze handle
Sweep towards base of fire
RATIONALE: This sequence is the correct method for using a fire extinguisher because it follows the PASS protocol,
which is a widely recognized and standardized procedure that prepares the user to effectively address the fire by pulling
the safety pin (P), aiming the nozzle (A), squeezing the handle (S), and sweeping the nozzle in a back-and-forth motion
towards the base of the fire (S). The PASS protocol ensures that the user is properly prepared and equipped to tackle
the fire in a controlled and safe manner.
QUESTION 4
What do you do if a fire occurs?
CORRECT ANSWER
RACE:
Rescue and remove clients in immediate danger
Activate alarm
Contain fire
Extinguish fire
RATIONALE: The RACE acronym is a structured approach to fire safety, prioritizing immediate actions that ensure the
safety of people and the containment of the fire to prevent further damage. Each step is a logical progression, starting
with removing people from danger, activating an alarm to alert others, containing the fire to prevent it from spreading,
and finally extinguishing it to eliminate the threat.
QUESTION 5
- An intentional threat toward another person that places them in reasonable fear of harmful,
imminent, or unwelcome contact.
- NO actual contact is necessary
- Ex: A threat to tie a patient or to give an injection to quiet a patient when they have refused
consent.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 82
, CORRECT ANSWER
Assault
RATIONALE: The key concept here is that assault involves an intentional threat that places another person in
reasonable fear of harmful contact, which can occur without any actual physical contact taking place. This is
demonstrated in the example, where a threat to tie a patient or administer an injection without consent constitutes
assault, highlighting the importance of the threat itself, rather than physical contact, in defining assault.
QUESTION 6
- Intentional offensive touching without consent or lawful jurisdiction.
- May be harmful or merely offensive to the client (giving the injection or tying the client)
CORRECT ANSWER
Battery
RATIONALE: The keyword here is "touching", which implies a physical interaction or contact. The context of "giving the
injection or tying the client" further supports this, as both actions require a physical touch, making the term "Battery" a
fitting description of the situation.
QUESTION 7
Conduct that deviates from what a reasonable person would do in a particular circumstance.
CORRECT ANSWER
Negligence
RATIONALE: Negligence is the correct answer because it involves a failure to meet the standard of care expected of a
reasonable person in a given situation, which is a key aspect of what is being described. This standard is not about
perfection, but rather about acting with ordinary prudence and common sense that would be expected of someone in
the same circumstances.
QUESTION 8
Unintentional tort, 4 elements necessary for malpractice:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Client must be owed a duty
- Breach of that duty
- Element of foreseeability
- Injury must have resulted as a direct result of breach of duty- causation
RATIONALE: This is not the correct answer for the question "Unintentional tort, 4 elements necessary for malpractice",
as malpractice typically involves a breach of professional duty by a healthcare provider, and unintentional torts are
broader and encompass various types of accidents, not just professional negligence. The four elements necessary for
proving malpractice in a medical context are typically: duty, breach, causation, and damages, but the question of
malpractice is a form of intentional tort, specifically the tort of negligence.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 3 of 82
, QUESTION 9
Nurse's role in informed consent is limited to:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Witnessing a patient's signature
- Validating that the consent is voluntary, that risks, benefits, & alternatives & right to refuse the
procedure were discussed with the patient by the health care provider.
- The patient should be competent
- Informed consent is accurately & appropriately filled out with date, time, & appropriate signatures - On
the patient's chart before transporting the patient to the procedure area.
- If pt refuses procedure then obtain written, signed, and witnessed documentation of refusal.
RATIONALE: The correct answer highlights the nurse's role in ensuring that informed consent is accurately documented,
which involves witnessing the patient's signature and validating that the process was voluntary and comprehensive,
reflecting the nurse's responsibility in maintaining a legal record. By focusing on these aspects, the answer emphasizes
that the nurse's role is not in obtaining informed consent, but rather in verifying its authenticity and documentation.
QUESTION 10
Informed consent indicates that the client has received the following info:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Diagnosis or condition that requires treatment
- Purpose of treatment
- What the client can expect to feel or experience
- Intended benefits
- Possible risks or negative outcomes
- Advantages/disadvantages of possible alternatives (including no treatment)
RATIONALE: Informed consent requires a client to be thoroughly aware of the diagnosis or condition they are being
treated for, the purpose and expected outcomes of the treatment, as well as any potential risks or negative outcomes.
This comprehensive information allows the client to make an informed decision about their care, weighing the benefits
and risks of treatment against possible alternatives, including doing nothing.
QUESTION 11
Indicates peritoneal hemorrhage / intra-abdominal bleeding. Mark it to determine borders.
CORRECT ANSWER
Grey Turner's or Cullen's Sign
RATIONALE: Grey Turner's or Cullen's sign indicates peritoneal hemorrhage or intra-abdominal bleeding due to the
appearance of bluish discoloration or ecchymosis on the flanks or periumbilical region, respectively, which is a result of
extravasated blood spreading to the surrounding tissues. These signs serve as visual indicators of the borders of the
bleeding area, allowing medical professionals to assess the extent of the internal hemorrhage.
QUESTION 12
"Lady with the Lamp"; wrote Notes on Nursing: What It Is, and What it is Not. Was a nurse during the
Crimean War.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 82
260+ (Updated 2026) Official-Style Exam Pack | Verified Answers |
Expert-Reviewed
100% Guarantee Pass
📋 DOCUMENT OVERVIEW 264 Qs
The "NUR 112 Final Exam Review" document covers specific topics such as Personal Protective
Equipment (PPE) protocols, fire safety, patient assault and battery, and physical health and autonomy. It
provides a comprehensive review of nursing concepts with 264 questions, each accompanied by a
correct answer and detailed explanations/rationales, including diagrams/images for enhanced
understanding. This document can be used by students to study, review, and deeply understand nursing
concepts, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation.
✓ Verified Answers ✓ Exam Ready ✓ Study Guide
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide
EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Donning PPE order:
CORRECT ANSWER
) Gown
2.) Mask
3.) Goggles / face shield
4.) Gloves
RATIONALE: This order prioritizes protection for the most vulnerable areas of the human body, with the gown providing
overall coverage, followed by the mask to safeguard the face and respiratory system, then goggles/face shield to protect
the eyes, and finally gloves to prevent skin contact. The sequence also ensures that the innermost layers of PPE are put
on last, preventing contamination from outer layers and reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
QUESTION 2
Doffing PPE:
CORRECT ANSWER
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 82
, ) Gloves
2.) Goggles / face shield
3.) Gown
4.) Mask
RATIONALE: When doffing PPE, one must first remove the outermost layer, which would be the gown, to prevent
contamination from spreading. The remaining items, gloves, goggles/face shield, and mask, should then be removed in
a specific order to prevent the outer layer from coming into contact with the face and other areas that were previously
protected, thereby maintaining a clean and controlled environment.
QUESTION 3
What is the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher?
CORRECT ANSWER
Pull pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze handle
Sweep towards base of fire
RATIONALE: This sequence is the correct method for using a fire extinguisher because it follows the PASS protocol,
which is a widely recognized and standardized procedure that prepares the user to effectively address the fire by pulling
the safety pin (P), aiming the nozzle (A), squeezing the handle (S), and sweeping the nozzle in a back-and-forth motion
towards the base of the fire (S). The PASS protocol ensures that the user is properly prepared and equipped to tackle
the fire in a controlled and safe manner.
QUESTION 4
What do you do if a fire occurs?
CORRECT ANSWER
RACE:
Rescue and remove clients in immediate danger
Activate alarm
Contain fire
Extinguish fire
RATIONALE: The RACE acronym is a structured approach to fire safety, prioritizing immediate actions that ensure the
safety of people and the containment of the fire to prevent further damage. Each step is a logical progression, starting
with removing people from danger, activating an alarm to alert others, containing the fire to prevent it from spreading,
and finally extinguishing it to eliminate the threat.
QUESTION 5
- An intentional threat toward another person that places them in reasonable fear of harmful,
imminent, or unwelcome contact.
- NO actual contact is necessary
- Ex: A threat to tie a patient or to give an injection to quiet a patient when they have refused
consent.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 82
, CORRECT ANSWER
Assault
RATIONALE: The key concept here is that assault involves an intentional threat that places another person in
reasonable fear of harmful contact, which can occur without any actual physical contact taking place. This is
demonstrated in the example, where a threat to tie a patient or administer an injection without consent constitutes
assault, highlighting the importance of the threat itself, rather than physical contact, in defining assault.
QUESTION 6
- Intentional offensive touching without consent or lawful jurisdiction.
- May be harmful or merely offensive to the client (giving the injection or tying the client)
CORRECT ANSWER
Battery
RATIONALE: The keyword here is "touching", which implies a physical interaction or contact. The context of "giving the
injection or tying the client" further supports this, as both actions require a physical touch, making the term "Battery" a
fitting description of the situation.
QUESTION 7
Conduct that deviates from what a reasonable person would do in a particular circumstance.
CORRECT ANSWER
Negligence
RATIONALE: Negligence is the correct answer because it involves a failure to meet the standard of care expected of a
reasonable person in a given situation, which is a key aspect of what is being described. This standard is not about
perfection, but rather about acting with ordinary prudence and common sense that would be expected of someone in
the same circumstances.
QUESTION 8
Unintentional tort, 4 elements necessary for malpractice:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Client must be owed a duty
- Breach of that duty
- Element of foreseeability
- Injury must have resulted as a direct result of breach of duty- causation
RATIONALE: This is not the correct answer for the question "Unintentional tort, 4 elements necessary for malpractice",
as malpractice typically involves a breach of professional duty by a healthcare provider, and unintentional torts are
broader and encompass various types of accidents, not just professional negligence. The four elements necessary for
proving malpractice in a medical context are typically: duty, breach, causation, and damages, but the question of
malpractice is a form of intentional tort, specifically the tort of negligence.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 3 of 82
, QUESTION 9
Nurse's role in informed consent is limited to:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Witnessing a patient's signature
- Validating that the consent is voluntary, that risks, benefits, & alternatives & right to refuse the
procedure were discussed with the patient by the health care provider.
- The patient should be competent
- Informed consent is accurately & appropriately filled out with date, time, & appropriate signatures - On
the patient's chart before transporting the patient to the procedure area.
- If pt refuses procedure then obtain written, signed, and witnessed documentation of refusal.
RATIONALE: The correct answer highlights the nurse's role in ensuring that informed consent is accurately documented,
which involves witnessing the patient's signature and validating that the process was voluntary and comprehensive,
reflecting the nurse's responsibility in maintaining a legal record. By focusing on these aspects, the answer emphasizes
that the nurse's role is not in obtaining informed consent, but rather in verifying its authenticity and documentation.
QUESTION 10
Informed consent indicates that the client has received the following info:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Diagnosis or condition that requires treatment
- Purpose of treatment
- What the client can expect to feel or experience
- Intended benefits
- Possible risks or negative outcomes
- Advantages/disadvantages of possible alternatives (including no treatment)
RATIONALE: Informed consent requires a client to be thoroughly aware of the diagnosis or condition they are being
treated for, the purpose and expected outcomes of the treatment, as well as any potential risks or negative outcomes.
This comprehensive information allows the client to make an informed decision about their care, weighing the benefits
and risks of treatment against possible alternatives, including doing nothing.
QUESTION 11
Indicates peritoneal hemorrhage / intra-abdominal bleeding. Mark it to determine borders.
CORRECT ANSWER
Grey Turner's or Cullen's Sign
RATIONALE: Grey Turner's or Cullen's sign indicates peritoneal hemorrhage or intra-abdominal bleeding due to the
appearance of bluish discoloration or ecchymosis on the flanks or periumbilical region, respectively, which is a result of
extravasated blood spreading to the surrounding tissues. These signs serve as visual indicators of the borders of the
bleeding area, allowing medical professionals to assess the extent of the internal hemorrhage.
QUESTION 12
"Lady with the Lamp"; wrote Notes on Nursing: What It Is, and What it is Not. Was a nurse during the
Crimean War.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 82
