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GEORGETTE PMHNP REVIEW 1 & 2 NEWEST 2026 PACKAGE DEAL | Georgette’s PMHNP Certification Exam Prep with Complete 800 Real Exam Questions & Correct Verified Answers – Already Graded A+ (Most Recent!!) – Complete A+ Guide

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Prepare to pass your Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) board exam with complete confidence – and a guaranteed first‑time pass! This Newest 2026 Package Deal delivers the most comprehensive PMHNP review available, combining Reviews 1 & 2 into a single powerful resource. With 800 real exam‑style questions and correct, verified answers – all already graded A+ – this Complete A+ Guide mirrors the exact content, format, and rigor of the actual ANCC and AANP PMHNP certification exams. Whether you are a PMHNP student, a recent graduate, or a nurse practitioner seeking board recertification, this bundle gives you the practice, mastery, and strategic edge you need to succeed. The Georgette review is the gold standard for PMHNP board preparation, created by Dr. Georgette Quie, a doctorally prepared, certified psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner. Her comprehensive review courses have successfully prepared over 16,000 psychiatric nurse practitioners for the PMHNP certification board exam, with pass rates that speak for themselves. This Package Deal covers the entire spectrum of exam content, organized into the same logical progression used in the official Georgette Live Modules.

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Institution
GEORGETTE PMHNP
Course
GEORGETTE PMHNP

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1

,Q1. A 32-year-old patient presents with depressed mood,
anhedonia, hypersomnia, increased appetite, and leaden
paralysis. Which specifier best fits this presentation?
A) Melancholic features
B) Atypical features
C) Psychotic features
D) Catatonic features

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atypical features include mood reactivity,
hypersomnia, increased appetite/weight gain, leaden paralysis,
and long-standing rejection sensitivity. Melancholic features
include early morning awakening and anorexia.




2

,Q2. A patient with bipolar I disorder presents with rapid
speech, grandiosity, and decreased need for sleep lasting 7
days. He also has paranoid delusions. What is the most
appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
A) Lithium monotherapy
B) Valproate plus an antipsychotic
C) SSRI monotherapy
D) Benzodiazepine monotherapy

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute mania with psychotic features requires a mood
stabilizer (lithium or valproate) PLUS an antipsychotic (e.g.,
olanzapine, risperidone). Antidepressants can worsen mania.



Q3. Which serotonin-dopamine antagonist (SDA) antipsychotic
has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Ziprasidone
C) Olanzapine
D) Lurasidone

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Olanzapine and clozapine have the highest risk of
3

, weight gain, dyslipidemia, and hyperglycemia. Aripiprazole,
ziprasidone, and lurasidone have lower metabolic risk.



Q4. A 45-year-old with panic disorder is started on sertraline.
He reports increased anxiety and jitteriness after the first dose.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Discontinue sertraline immediately
B) Add a benzodiazepine temporarily and start at a lower dose
C) Increase the sertraline dose
D) Switch to fluoxetine

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initial activation or jitteriness from SSRIs is common in
anxiety disorders. Start at a very low dose and add a short-term
benzodiazepine (e.g., clonazepam) until tolerance develops.



Q5. A patient on clozapine develops fever, tachycardia, and
sore throat. WBC is 2,500/mm³. What is the priority action?
A) Continue clozapine and monitor weekly
B) Stop clozapine immediately and check absolute neutrophil
count (ANC)

4

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GEORGETTE PMHNP
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GEORGETTE PMHNP

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