HSPA | IAHCSMM CRCST Exam
2026/2027 Actual Exam | Newly Released
150 Real Exam Based Verified Questions and Correct
Answers |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: A technician receives a tray of soiled surgical instruments from the operating room. The
instruments are visibly contaminated with blood and tissue. According to OSHA and CDC
guidelines, what is the FIRST step in the decontamination process?
A. Place the instruments directly into the ultrasonic cleaner
B. Wear appropriate PPE and transport the soiled items in a closed, leak-proof
container [CORRECT]
C. Rinse the instruments under running water at the sink
D. Wipe the instruments with a disinfectant wipe before transport
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and CDC guidelines,
the first step when handling soiled instruments is to don appropriate PPE (gloves, gown, eye
protection, face shield as needed) and place contaminated items in a closed, leak-proof, labeled
container for transport to the decontamination area. Preventing exposure and aerosolization
during transport is the priority. Rinsing at the sink is discouraged as it creates aerosols and
splash risk.
Q2: Which of the following is the correct order for donning PPE in the decontamination area?
A. Mask → eye protection → gown → gloves [CORRECT]
B. Gown → gloves → mask → eye protection
C. Gloves → gown → mask → eye protection
D. Eye protection → gown → gloves → mask
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because per CDC and OSHA guidelines, PPE should be donned in the
following sequence: mask (or respirator if needed), eye protection (goggles or face shield), gown,
and finally gloves. Gloves are always donned last because they are the most likely to become
contaminated and need to be removed first during doffing.
Q3: A washer-disinfector cycle completes and the printout shows all parameters within range.
However, the efficacy test using a chemical integrator shows a failure. What should the
technician do?
A. Release the load as normal since the cycle parameters were acceptable
B. Repeat the efficacy test; if it fails again, do not release the load and notify the
supervisor [CORRECT]
C. Repeat the entire wash cycle immediately
D. Release the load but document the failed test for the next shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per AAMI ST79 and quality assurance protocols, if a chemical
integrator (efficacy test) fails, the load must NOT be released. The technician should first repeat
the efficacy test to rule out a defective indicator. If it fails again, the load must be reprocessed
and the supervisor notified. Cycle parameters alone do not guarantee efficacy if the chemical test
fails.
Q4: What is the recommended water temperature for the final rinse in a washer-disinfector
according to AAMI standards?
A. 120°F (49°C)
B. 140°F (60°C) minimum [CORRECT]
C. 160°F (71°C)
D. 180°F (82°C)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because AAMI ST79 requires the final rinse water temperature to be at least
140°F (60°C) for washer-disinfectors using thermal disinfection. This temperature ensures
adequate removal of detergent residue and helps achieve the required disinfection level. Lower
temperatures may not adequately remove chemical residues or achieve disinfection.
,Q5: A technician is cleaning a flexible endoscope. According to the Manufacturer's IFU, what is
the minimum recommended soak time in high-level disinfectant (HLD) for most flexible
endoscopes?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. The time specified in the IFU, typically 10–45 minutes depending on the product
[CORRECT]
D. 60 minutes for all endoscopes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Manufacturer's IFU for both the endoscope and the HLD
chemical dictates the minimum contact/soak time, which varies by product combination
(typically 10–45 minutes). Technicians must always follow the IFU rather than assuming a
standard time. Using an incorrect contact time can result in inadequate high-level disinfection.
Q6: Which type of fire extinguisher should be used for an electrical fire in the sterile storage
area?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C [CORRECT]
D. Class D
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Class C fire extinguishers are designed for electrical fires. Class A is
for ordinary combustibles (wood, paper), Class B for flammable liquids, and Class D for
combustible metals. In a sterile storage area with electrical equipment (sterilizers, computers), a
Class C extinguisher (CO2 or dry chemical) is the appropriate choice per fire safety standards.
, Q7: An ultrasonic cleaner is being used for instrument cleaning. To prevent aerosol generation,
the technician should:
A. Use the highest power setting for the fastest clean
B. Keep instruments submerged and brush below the water surface [CORRECT]
C. Remove instruments frequently to inspect during the cycle
D. Leave the ultrasonic lid open for ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per CDC and OSHA guidelines, ultrasonic cleaning generates
aerosols that can contain microorganisms. To minimize aerosol risk, instruments must remain
submerged at all times, and brushing should be done below the water surface. The lid should
remain closed during operation. Removing instruments or leaving the lid open increases
exposure risk.
Q8: What is the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for steam sterilization?
A. 10⁻³
B. 10⁻⁶ [CORRECT]
C. 10⁻⁹
D. 10⁻¹²
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for steam sterilization is 10⁻⁶,
meaning there is a one-in-one-million chance of a single viable microorganism surviving the
sterilization process. This is the standard SAL required by AAMI ST79 for all sterilization
modalities. Ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma also target 10⁻⁶ SAL.
Q9: A Bowie-Dick test is performed on a prevacuum steam sterilizer. The test result shows
uneven steam penetration. What should the technician do?
A. Run another Bowie-Dick test immediately
B. Do not use the sterilizer for patient care until the air removal issue is identified and
corrected [CORRECT]
C. Increase the cycle time to compensate
2026/2027 Actual Exam | Newly Released
150 Real Exam Based Verified Questions and Correct
Answers |100% Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1: A technician receives a tray of soiled surgical instruments from the operating room. The
instruments are visibly contaminated with blood and tissue. According to OSHA and CDC
guidelines, what is the FIRST step in the decontamination process?
A. Place the instruments directly into the ultrasonic cleaner
B. Wear appropriate PPE and transport the soiled items in a closed, leak-proof
container [CORRECT]
C. Rinse the instruments under running water at the sink
D. Wipe the instruments with a disinfectant wipe before transport
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and CDC guidelines,
the first step when handling soiled instruments is to don appropriate PPE (gloves, gown, eye
protection, face shield as needed) and place contaminated items in a closed, leak-proof, labeled
container for transport to the decontamination area. Preventing exposure and aerosolization
during transport is the priority. Rinsing at the sink is discouraged as it creates aerosols and
splash risk.
Q2: Which of the following is the correct order for donning PPE in the decontamination area?
A. Mask → eye protection → gown → gloves [CORRECT]
B. Gown → gloves → mask → eye protection
C. Gloves → gown → mask → eye protection
D. Eye protection → gown → gloves → mask
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because per CDC and OSHA guidelines, PPE should be donned in the
following sequence: mask (or respirator if needed), eye protection (goggles or face shield), gown,
and finally gloves. Gloves are always donned last because they are the most likely to become
contaminated and need to be removed first during doffing.
Q3: A washer-disinfector cycle completes and the printout shows all parameters within range.
However, the efficacy test using a chemical integrator shows a failure. What should the
technician do?
A. Release the load as normal since the cycle parameters were acceptable
B. Repeat the efficacy test; if it fails again, do not release the load and notify the
supervisor [CORRECT]
C. Repeat the entire wash cycle immediately
D. Release the load but document the failed test for the next shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per AAMI ST79 and quality assurance protocols, if a chemical
integrator (efficacy test) fails, the load must NOT be released. The technician should first repeat
the efficacy test to rule out a defective indicator. If it fails again, the load must be reprocessed
and the supervisor notified. Cycle parameters alone do not guarantee efficacy if the chemical test
fails.
Q4: What is the recommended water temperature for the final rinse in a washer-disinfector
according to AAMI standards?
A. 120°F (49°C)
B. 140°F (60°C) minimum [CORRECT]
C. 160°F (71°C)
D. 180°F (82°C)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because AAMI ST79 requires the final rinse water temperature to be at least
140°F (60°C) for washer-disinfectors using thermal disinfection. This temperature ensures
adequate removal of detergent residue and helps achieve the required disinfection level. Lower
temperatures may not adequately remove chemical residues or achieve disinfection.
,Q5: A technician is cleaning a flexible endoscope. According to the Manufacturer's IFU, what is
the minimum recommended soak time in high-level disinfectant (HLD) for most flexible
endoscopes?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. The time specified in the IFU, typically 10–45 minutes depending on the product
[CORRECT]
D. 60 minutes for all endoscopes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because the Manufacturer's IFU for both the endoscope and the HLD
chemical dictates the minimum contact/soak time, which varies by product combination
(typically 10–45 minutes). Technicians must always follow the IFU rather than assuming a
standard time. Using an incorrect contact time can result in inadequate high-level disinfection.
Q6: Which type of fire extinguisher should be used for an electrical fire in the sterile storage
area?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C [CORRECT]
D. Class D
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Class C fire extinguishers are designed for electrical fires. Class A is
for ordinary combustibles (wood, paper), Class B for flammable liquids, and Class D for
combustible metals. In a sterile storage area with electrical equipment (sterilizers, computers), a
Class C extinguisher (CO2 or dry chemical) is the appropriate choice per fire safety standards.
, Q7: An ultrasonic cleaner is being used for instrument cleaning. To prevent aerosol generation,
the technician should:
A. Use the highest power setting for the fastest clean
B. Keep instruments submerged and brush below the water surface [CORRECT]
C. Remove instruments frequently to inspect during the cycle
D. Leave the ultrasonic lid open for ventilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because per CDC and OSHA guidelines, ultrasonic cleaning generates
aerosols that can contain microorganisms. To minimize aerosol risk, instruments must remain
submerged at all times, and brushing should be done below the water surface. The lid should
remain closed during operation. Removing instruments or leaving the lid open increases
exposure risk.
Q8: What is the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for steam sterilization?
A. 10⁻³
B. 10⁻⁶ [CORRECT]
C. 10⁻⁹
D. 10⁻¹²
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) for steam sterilization is 10⁻⁶,
meaning there is a one-in-one-million chance of a single viable microorganism surviving the
sterilization process. This is the standard SAL required by AAMI ST79 for all sterilization
modalities. Ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma also target 10⁻⁶ SAL.
Q9: A Bowie-Dick test is performed on a prevacuum steam sterilizer. The test result shows
uneven steam penetration. What should the technician do?
A. Run another Bowie-Dick test immediately
B. Do not use the sterilizer for patient care until the air removal issue is identified and
corrected [CORRECT]
C. Increase the cycle time to compensate
