AORN PERIOP 101 EXAM / LATEST AORN PERIOP 101 ACTUAL
FINAL EXAM 2026 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND A NEW
UPDATED STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE APPROVED QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED STUDY GUIDE
2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
1. A surgical patient expresses anxiety about receiving a blood
transfusion due to religious beliefs. Which action should the
perioperative nurse take first?
A. Notify the surgeon to cancel the procedure
B. Reassure the patient that transfusions are rarely needed
C. Respect the patient’s beliefs and document the discussion in the
medical record
D. Contact the hospital ethics committee immediately
Correct Answer: C – Respect the patient’s beliefs and document the
discussion in the medical record
Rationale: The nurse must respect patient autonomy and religious
beliefs. The first step is acknowledgment, documentation, and
communication with the surgical team to explore alternatives (e.g., cell
salvage). Cancelling surgery or ethics committee referral may follow but
is not the first action.
2. Which of the following is the most effective method to prevent
surgical site infections (SSIs) in the operating room?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics 2 hours before incision
B. Maintaining strict aseptic technique including proper surgical hand
scrub
C. Keeping the OR temperature at 65°F (18°C)
D. Allowing family members to observe the procedure from a gallery
,Correct Answer: B – Maintaining strict aseptic technique including
proper surgical hand scrub
*Rationale: Aseptic technique is foundational for SSI prevention.
Antibiotics should be given within 60 minutes before incision, not 2
hours. OR temperature is typically kept warmer (68-73°F). Family
observation does not prevent SSIs. *
3. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the CO₂ insufflator alarm
sounds with high pressure. The nurse should first:
A. Increase the CO₂ flow rate
B. Notify the surgeon of possible over-insufflation or patient positioning
issue
C. Deflate the abdomen immediately
D. Turn off the insufflator and remove the trocars
Correct Answer: B – Notify the surgeon of possible over-insufflation
or patient positioning issue
Rationale: High pressure may indicate improper trocar placement,
patient positioning, or over-insufflation. The surgeon must assess before
any adjustments. Increasing flow worsens risk; deflation or trocar
removal is premature without assessment.
4. Which patient positioning device is most appropriate to prevent
brachial plexus injury during a prolonged thyroidectomy with the arms
tucked at the sides?
A. Gel roll under the axilla
B. Arm board at 90 degrees abduction
C. Shoulder braces
D. Wrist restraints
,Correct Answer: A – Gel roll under the axilla
Rationale: A gel roll placed under the axilla (not in the axilla) relieves
pressure on the brachial plexus when arms are tucked. Arm abduction
increases stretch. Shoulder braces risk nerve injury. Restraints do not
prevent plexus injury.
5. A perioperative nurse is performing a time-out before a scheduled left
knee arthroscopy. The patient says, “I thought it was my right knee.”
The nurse should:
A. Proceed with the left knee as per the consent form
B. Mark the right knee and continue
C. Stop the procedure and notify the surgeon immediately
D. Ask the patient to sign a new consent form in the OR
Correct Answer: C – Stop the procedure and notify the surgeon
immediately
Rationale: A time-out discrepancy requires stopping all activity until the
correct site is verified. The surgeon must reassess the patient, and
informed consent must be corrected. Never proceed when site confusion
exists.
6. What is the minimum recommended airborne infection isolation room
air exchange rate for an operating room where a patient with active
pulmonary tuberculosis is undergoing surgery?
A. 6 exchanges per hour
B. 12 exchanges per hour
C. 20 exchanges per hour
D. 25 exchanges per hour
, Correct Answer: B – 12 exchanges per hour
*Rationale: For airborne precautions, 12 air exchanges per hour (or
more) are recommended for existing facilities; new or renovated ORs
should aim for 15-20. Six is insufficient for TB. *
7. Which of the following correctly describes the role of the circulating
nurse during a robot-assisted prostatectomy?
A. Directly control the robotic arms
B. Maintain the patient’s sterility by donning a sterile gown
C. Manage the camera and insufflation settings
D. Remain uncurbed, document care, and manage the room environment
Correct Answer: D – Remain uncurbed, document care, and manage
the room environment
Rationale: The circulating nurse is uncurbed, coordinates team
activities, documents, and ensures safety. The surgeon controls robotic
arms; a scrub person or assistant manages camera/insufflation.
8. A patient in the preoperative holding area reports a metal allergy to
nickel. The planned surgery requires placement of a stainless steel
implant containing nickel. The nurse should:
A. Proceed as scheduled because reactions are rare
B. Apply a plastic barrier to the skin only
C. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider; request allergy
consultation
D. Administer intravenous diphenhydramine immediately
Correct Answer: C – Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider;
request allergy consultation
Rationale: Nickel allergy can cause implant failure or dermatitis. The
FINAL EXAM 2026 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND A NEW
UPDATED STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE APPROVED QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) NEWEST UPDATED STUDY GUIDE
2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
1. A surgical patient expresses anxiety about receiving a blood
transfusion due to religious beliefs. Which action should the
perioperative nurse take first?
A. Notify the surgeon to cancel the procedure
B. Reassure the patient that transfusions are rarely needed
C. Respect the patient’s beliefs and document the discussion in the
medical record
D. Contact the hospital ethics committee immediately
Correct Answer: C – Respect the patient’s beliefs and document the
discussion in the medical record
Rationale: The nurse must respect patient autonomy and religious
beliefs. The first step is acknowledgment, documentation, and
communication with the surgical team to explore alternatives (e.g., cell
salvage). Cancelling surgery or ethics committee referral may follow but
is not the first action.
2. Which of the following is the most effective method to prevent
surgical site infections (SSIs) in the operating room?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics 2 hours before incision
B. Maintaining strict aseptic technique including proper surgical hand
scrub
C. Keeping the OR temperature at 65°F (18°C)
D. Allowing family members to observe the procedure from a gallery
,Correct Answer: B – Maintaining strict aseptic technique including
proper surgical hand scrub
*Rationale: Aseptic technique is foundational for SSI prevention.
Antibiotics should be given within 60 minutes before incision, not 2
hours. OR temperature is typically kept warmer (68-73°F). Family
observation does not prevent SSIs. *
3. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the CO₂ insufflator alarm
sounds with high pressure. The nurse should first:
A. Increase the CO₂ flow rate
B. Notify the surgeon of possible over-insufflation or patient positioning
issue
C. Deflate the abdomen immediately
D. Turn off the insufflator and remove the trocars
Correct Answer: B – Notify the surgeon of possible over-insufflation
or patient positioning issue
Rationale: High pressure may indicate improper trocar placement,
patient positioning, or over-insufflation. The surgeon must assess before
any adjustments. Increasing flow worsens risk; deflation or trocar
removal is premature without assessment.
4. Which patient positioning device is most appropriate to prevent
brachial plexus injury during a prolonged thyroidectomy with the arms
tucked at the sides?
A. Gel roll under the axilla
B. Arm board at 90 degrees abduction
C. Shoulder braces
D. Wrist restraints
,Correct Answer: A – Gel roll under the axilla
Rationale: A gel roll placed under the axilla (not in the axilla) relieves
pressure on the brachial plexus when arms are tucked. Arm abduction
increases stretch. Shoulder braces risk nerve injury. Restraints do not
prevent plexus injury.
5. A perioperative nurse is performing a time-out before a scheduled left
knee arthroscopy. The patient says, “I thought it was my right knee.”
The nurse should:
A. Proceed with the left knee as per the consent form
B. Mark the right knee and continue
C. Stop the procedure and notify the surgeon immediately
D. Ask the patient to sign a new consent form in the OR
Correct Answer: C – Stop the procedure and notify the surgeon
immediately
Rationale: A time-out discrepancy requires stopping all activity until the
correct site is verified. The surgeon must reassess the patient, and
informed consent must be corrected. Never proceed when site confusion
exists.
6. What is the minimum recommended airborne infection isolation room
air exchange rate for an operating room where a patient with active
pulmonary tuberculosis is undergoing surgery?
A. 6 exchanges per hour
B. 12 exchanges per hour
C. 20 exchanges per hour
D. 25 exchanges per hour
, Correct Answer: B – 12 exchanges per hour
*Rationale: For airborne precautions, 12 air exchanges per hour (or
more) are recommended for existing facilities; new or renovated ORs
should aim for 15-20. Six is insufficient for TB. *
7. Which of the following correctly describes the role of the circulating
nurse during a robot-assisted prostatectomy?
A. Directly control the robotic arms
B. Maintain the patient’s sterility by donning a sterile gown
C. Manage the camera and insufflation settings
D. Remain uncurbed, document care, and manage the room environment
Correct Answer: D – Remain uncurbed, document care, and manage
the room environment
Rationale: The circulating nurse is uncurbed, coordinates team
activities, documents, and ensures safety. The surgeon controls robotic
arms; a scrub person or assistant manages camera/insufflation.
8. A patient in the preoperative holding area reports a metal allergy to
nickel. The planned surgery requires placement of a stainless steel
implant containing nickel. The nurse should:
A. Proceed as scheduled because reactions are rare
B. Apply a plastic barrier to the skin only
C. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider; request allergy
consultation
D. Administer intravenous diphenhydramine immediately
Correct Answer: C – Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider;
request allergy consultation
Rationale: Nickel allergy can cause implant failure or dermatitis. The
