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NUR206 COMMUNITY NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM 2 STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027 | Latest Update | Grade A | Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass NUR206 Community Nursing Concepts Exam 2 with this latest 2026/2027 Grade A study guide. This A+ Graded resource contains verified questions and answers covering all key community nursing concepts for Exam 2. Topics include community health assessment (windshield survey, community diagnosis, data collection, asset mapping), epidemiology (incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality, attack rate, outbreak investigation, chain of infection, web of causation), levels of prevention (primary, secondary, tertiary) with community-based interventions, vulnerable populations (homeless, elderly, immigrants, LGBTQ+, low income, rural communities, justice-involved individuals), cultural competence (LEARN model, EXPLORE model, CLAS standards, cultural humility), health promotion theories (Health Belief Model, Transtheoretical Model, Social Cognitive Theory, Ecological Model), Healthy People 2030 objectives (leading health indicators, overarching goals), community education and program planning (needs assessment, logic models, implementation strategies, process and outcome evaluation), infectious disease surveillance (passive vs. active surveillance, reportable diseases, contact tracing, isolation vs. quarantine), disaster nursing (four phases: mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery; triage systems START/JumpSTART, SALT; disaster triage tags, role of community nurse in disasters, emergency operations plan), environmental health (environmental justice, air quality index, waterborne illnesses, lead screening, radon, food safety, waste disposal, occupational exposures), school nursing (IEPs, 504 plans, common school health issues: asthma, diabetes, seizures, anaphylaxis; mandatory reporting, vision/hearing/scoliosis screenings), occupational health nursing (workplace hazard identification, OSHA regulations, workers' compensation, employee wellness programs, ergonomics, PPE), home health nursing (medication management, wound care, fall risk assessment, caregiver strain, home safety evaluation, telehealth in home care), public health policy (Affordable Care Act, Medicare, Medicaid, CHIP, policy advocacy, legislative process, social determinants of health, health equity, health disparities), case management (assessment, planning, implementation, coordination, monitoring, evaluation, advocacy), and ethical/legal issues (confidentiality (HIPAA), mandatory reporting (child/elder abuse, communicable diseases, gunshot wounds), informed consent in community settings, ethical principles: autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice). Each answer includes clear rationales to reinforce community health nursing judgment. Perfect for nursing students preparing for Community Nursing Concepts Exam 2. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently prepare for your NUR206 Exam 2. Download your complete NUR206 Community Nursing Concepts Exam 2 Study Guide instantly!

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NUR206 COMMUNITY NURSING CONCEPTS EXAM 2 STUDY
GUIDE 2026/2027 | Latest Update | Grade A | Verified Q&A |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded


[Section 1: Epidemiology Principles & Calculation Applications (Q1-14)]

Q1. Which term describes the constant, baseline presence of a disease or infectious
agent within a specific geographic area or population?

A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Hyperendemic

Correct Answer: B Rationale: B. Endemic [CORRECT] — Endemic refers to the
habitual presence of a disease within a given area (e.g., malaria in parts of sub-
Saharan Africa). An epidemic is an abrupt increase above baseline, and a pandemic is
an epidemic spread across multiple countries or continents.

Q2. A school district has 10,000 students. At the start of the school year, 200 students
have a documented peanut allergy. During the school year, 50 students are newly
diagnosed with peanut allergy. What is the incidence rate per 1,000 population at
risk?

A. 2.0 per 1,000
B. 5.0 per 1,000
C. 5.1 per 1,000
D. 25.0 per 1,000

Correct Answer: C Rationale: C. 5.1 per 1,000 [CORRECT] — Incidence rate uses the
population at risk (10,000 − 200 = 9,800). Calculation: (50 ÷ 9,800) × 1,000 = 5.1 per
1,000. Option B incorrectly uses the total population, and D uses the existing cases as
the denominator.

Q3. During a community health fair in 2026, a nurse screens 2,500 adults and finds
that 300 have undiagnosed hypertension and 200 have diagnosed hypertension.
What is the point prevalence of hypertension in this screened population?

,2



A. 8%
B. 12%
C. 20%
D. 50%

Correct Answer: C Rationale: C. 20% [CORRECT] — Prevalence includes all existing
cases (300 undiagnosed + 200 diagnosed = 500) divided by the total screened
population (2,500): 500 ÷ 2,500 = 0.20 or 20%. Option A counts only diagnosed
cases, and B counts only undiagnosed cases.

Q4. At a church picnic, 80 people eat potato salad. Within 48 hours, 40 people who
ate the salad develop vomiting and diarrhea. What is the attack rate for foodborne
illness among potato salad consumers?

A. 33%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 80%

Correct Answer: C Rationale: C. 50% [CORRECT] — Attack rate = (number of
exposed who become ill ÷ total exposed) × 100 = (40 ÷ 80) × 100 = 50%. Option B
uses the number ill as the denominator, and D assumes all exposed became ill.

Q5. A new rapid HIV screening test is evaluated in 1,000 high-risk individuals. The
gold standard confirms 100 have HIV. The rapid test correctly identifies 90 of the 100
HIV-positive individuals but misses 10. What is the sensitivity of this test?

A. 80%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 99%

Correct Answer: B Rationale: B. 90% [CORRECT] — Sensitivity = true positives ÷
(true positives + false negatives) = 90 ÷ (90 + 10) = 90 ÷ 100 = 90%. This measures
the test's ability to correctly identify those with disease.

Q6. In the same HIV screening study, the gold standard confirms 900 individuals do
not have HIV. The rapid test correctly identifies 855 of the 900 HIV-negative
individuals but falsely identifies 45 as positive. What is the specificity?

, 3



A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 100%

Correct Answer: C Rationale: C. 95% [CORRECT] — Specificity = true negatives ÷
(true negatives + false positives) = 855 ÷ (855 + 45) = 855 ÷ 900 = 0.95 or 95%. This
measures the test's ability to correctly identify those without disease.

Q7. In the same HIV screening study, the rapid test identified 90 true positives and 45
false positives. What is the positive predictive value (PPV)?

A. 50%
B. 66.7%
C. 90%
D. 95%

Correct Answer: B Rationale: B. 66.7% [CORRECT] — PPV = true positives ÷ (true
positives + false positives) = 90 ÷ (90 + 45) = 90 ÷ 135 = 0.667 or 66.7%. PPV
indicates the probability that a positive test result truly reflects disease presence.

Q8. During a localized meningococcal outbreak, 60 people develop confirmed
disease. Despite treatment, 3 people die from the infection. What is the case fatality
rate?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

Correct Answer: B Rationale: B. 5% [CORRECT] — Case fatality rate = (deaths from
disease ÷ total cases) × 100 = (3 ÷ 60) × 100 = 5%. Option A uses the number of
deaths as the percentage without division by total cases.

Q9. A city has a population of 250,000. In 2026, there were 1,250 deaths from all
causes. What is the all-cause mortality rate per 100,000 population?

A. 250
B. 400
C. 500
D. 1,250

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