MATERNAL CHILD NURSING NU 170 EXAM / NU 170 MATERNAL CHILD
NURSING ACTUAL EXAM 3 LATEST 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND A NEW UPDATED STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES
(100% EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ (BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED
EXAM |JUST RELEASED
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about expected physiological changes during
pregnancy. Which of the following cardiovascular changes should the nurse
include as a normal finding?
A) Decreased heart rate by 10-15 beats per minute
B) Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C) Increased blood volume by 40-50% CORRECT ANSWER
D) Decreased cardiac output in the third trimester
Rationale: During pregnancy, blood volume increases by 40-50% to support fetal
growth and maternal organ perfusion. Heart rate increases (not decreases) by 10-15
bpm. Blood pressure typically decreases slightly in the second trimester due to
peripheral vasodilation. Cardiac output increases by 30-50%, not decreases.
A client at 38 weeks’ gestation presents with a sudden gush of clear fluid from the
vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Check fetal heart rate
B) Assess the fluid for color and odor CORRECT ANSWER
C) Perform a sterile vaginal exam
D) Administer oxytocin
Rationale: The nurse first assesses the fluid to confirm rupture of membranes
(color, odor, amount). Clear fluid is normal; green or yellow may indicate
,meconium. Fetal heart rate is checked after assessment but not first. Sterile vaginal
exam may introduce infection if membranes are ruptured and should be done only
if necessary. Oxytocin is not indicated.
A postpartum client reports excessive lochia with large clots and a boggy uterus.
The nurse’s priority intervention is:
A) Apply an ice pack to the abdomen
B) Fundal massage and administer oxytocin as ordered CORRECT ANSWER
C) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D) Increase IV fluids
Rationale: A boggy uterus with large clots indicates uterine atony, the leading
cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage stimulates contraction, and
oxytocin is first-line pharmacotherapy. Ice packs are for perineal edema, not
uterine atony. Trendelenburg is not recommended for shock. IV fluids are
supportive but not the priority.
A newborn’s Apgar score is 6 at 1 minute. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate?
A) Initiating chest compressions
B) Providing tactile stimulation and oxygen as needed CORRECT ANSWER
C) Intubating immediately
D) Administering naloxone
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4-6 indicates moderate difficulty; tactile stimulation
and supplemental oxygen are appropriate. Chest compressions are for scores 0-3.
Intubation is not first-line. Naloxone is given if maternal opioids are suspected, not
based on Apgar alone.
,A pregnant client at 28 weeks’ gestation has a positive one-hour glucose challenge
test result of 150 mg/ld. Which of the following should the nurse expect next?
A) Diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus
B) A three-hour oral glucose tolerance test CORRECT ANSWER
C) Initiation of insulin therapy
D) Dietary teaching with a referral to a dietitian
Rationale: A one-hour glucose challenge result of 130-180 mg/ld. requires follow-
up with a three-hour oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis. Diagnosis
of GDM is not made based on the screening test alone. Insulin or dietary teaching
occurs after confirmation.
A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late
decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Increase oxytocin infusion rate
B) Reposition the mother to left lateral CORRECT ANSWER
C) Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
D) Administer oncolytic medication
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. First-line
interventions include maternal repositioning (left lateral to improve placental
perfusion), oxygen, and IV fluids. Increasing oxytocin would worsen decelerations.
Cesarean is considered if decelerations persist. Tocolytics are not used for late
decelerations.
A new mother asks why her newborn’s skin appears yellow on the second day of
life. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) “This is a sign of a serious liver disorder.”
, B) “Physiological jaundice occurs as the liver matures and is common by day 2-3.”
CORRECT ANSWER
C) “Your baby needs immediate phototherapy.”
D) “You should stop breastfeeding to treat this.”
Rationale: Physiological jaundice appears after 24 hours, typically on day 2-3, due
to immature liver conjugation of bilirubin. It is usually benign. Pathological
jaundice appears within 24 hours. Phototherapy is for high bilirubin levels, not all
cases. Breastfeeding should continue.
A client at 32 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding. An
ultrasound reveals placenta Previa. Which of the following orders should the nurse
question?
A) Continuous fetal monitoring
B) Digital vaginal examination CORRECT ANSWER
C) Type and crosshatch for blood
D) Bed rest with bathroom privileges
Rationale: In placenta Previa, digital vaginal examination is contraindicated
because it can disrupt the placenta and cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Fetal
monitoring, blood preparation, and limited activity are appropriate.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client
with severe preeclampsia. Which finding indicates a therapeutic response?
A) Increased blood pressure to 160/100 mm Hg
B) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
C) Urinary output of 30 mL/hour CORRECT ANSWER
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
NURSING ACTUAL EXAM 3 LATEST 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND A NEW UPDATED STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES
(100% EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+ (BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED
EXAM |JUST RELEASED
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about expected physiological changes during
pregnancy. Which of the following cardiovascular changes should the nurse
include as a normal finding?
A) Decreased heart rate by 10-15 beats per minute
B) Increased blood pressure in the second trimester
C) Increased blood volume by 40-50% CORRECT ANSWER
D) Decreased cardiac output in the third trimester
Rationale: During pregnancy, blood volume increases by 40-50% to support fetal
growth and maternal organ perfusion. Heart rate increases (not decreases) by 10-15
bpm. Blood pressure typically decreases slightly in the second trimester due to
peripheral vasodilation. Cardiac output increases by 30-50%, not decreases.
A client at 38 weeks’ gestation presents with a sudden gush of clear fluid from the
vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Check fetal heart rate
B) Assess the fluid for color and odor CORRECT ANSWER
C) Perform a sterile vaginal exam
D) Administer oxytocin
Rationale: The nurse first assesses the fluid to confirm rupture of membranes
(color, odor, amount). Clear fluid is normal; green or yellow may indicate
,meconium. Fetal heart rate is checked after assessment but not first. Sterile vaginal
exam may introduce infection if membranes are ruptured and should be done only
if necessary. Oxytocin is not indicated.
A postpartum client reports excessive lochia with large clots and a boggy uterus.
The nurse’s priority intervention is:
A) Apply an ice pack to the abdomen
B) Fundal massage and administer oxytocin as ordered CORRECT ANSWER
C) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D) Increase IV fluids
Rationale: A boggy uterus with large clots indicates uterine atony, the leading
cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage stimulates contraction, and
oxytocin is first-line pharmacotherapy. Ice packs are for perineal edema, not
uterine atony. Trendelenburg is not recommended for shock. IV fluids are
supportive but not the priority.
A newborn’s Apgar score is 6 at 1 minute. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate?
A) Initiating chest compressions
B) Providing tactile stimulation and oxygen as needed CORRECT ANSWER
C) Intubating immediately
D) Administering naloxone
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4-6 indicates moderate difficulty; tactile stimulation
and supplemental oxygen are appropriate. Chest compressions are for scores 0-3.
Intubation is not first-line. Naloxone is given if maternal opioids are suspected, not
based on Apgar alone.
,A pregnant client at 28 weeks’ gestation has a positive one-hour glucose challenge
test result of 150 mg/ld. Which of the following should the nurse expect next?
A) Diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus
B) A three-hour oral glucose tolerance test CORRECT ANSWER
C) Initiation of insulin therapy
D) Dietary teaching with a referral to a dietitian
Rationale: A one-hour glucose challenge result of 130-180 mg/ld. requires follow-
up with a three-hour oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis. Diagnosis
of GDM is not made based on the screening test alone. Insulin or dietary teaching
occurs after confirmation.
A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late
decelerations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Increase oxytocin infusion rate
B) Reposition the mother to left lateral CORRECT ANSWER
C) Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
D) Administer oncolytic medication
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. First-line
interventions include maternal repositioning (left lateral to improve placental
perfusion), oxygen, and IV fluids. Increasing oxytocin would worsen decelerations.
Cesarean is considered if decelerations persist. Tocolytics are not used for late
decelerations.
A new mother asks why her newborn’s skin appears yellow on the second day of
life. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) “This is a sign of a serious liver disorder.”
, B) “Physiological jaundice occurs as the liver matures and is common by day 2-3.”
CORRECT ANSWER
C) “Your baby needs immediate phototherapy.”
D) “You should stop breastfeeding to treat this.”
Rationale: Physiological jaundice appears after 24 hours, typically on day 2-3, due
to immature liver conjugation of bilirubin. It is usually benign. Pathological
jaundice appears within 24 hours. Phototherapy is for high bilirubin levels, not all
cases. Breastfeeding should continue.
A client at 32 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding. An
ultrasound reveals placenta Previa. Which of the following orders should the nurse
question?
A) Continuous fetal monitoring
B) Digital vaginal examination CORRECT ANSWER
C) Type and crosshatch for blood
D) Bed rest with bathroom privileges
Rationale: In placenta Previa, digital vaginal examination is contraindicated
because it can disrupt the placenta and cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Fetal
monitoring, blood preparation, and limited activity are appropriate.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client
with severe preeclampsia. Which finding indicates a therapeutic response?
A) Increased blood pressure to 160/100 mm Hg
B) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
C) Urinary output of 30 mL/hour CORRECT ANSWER
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
