NR509 Week 4 Final Exam 2026
Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 100
NR-509 Advanced Physical Assessment
NR 509 Midterm and Finals Examplify
Online Proctored Exam Questions and
Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
SECTION 1: GENERAL & CLINICAL REASONING
Question 1
A 45-year-old male presents with chest pain. Which history finding
is most consistent with angina pectoris?
A) Sharp pain worsened by deep inspiration
B) Burning sensation after meals, relieved by antacids
C) Substernal pressure precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest
D) Constant ache localized to the left pectoral muscle
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: Angina is typically described as pressure, heaviness, or
squeezing in the substernal region provoked by exertion or
emotional stress and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Sharp pain
,worsened by inspiration suggests pericarditis or pleuritic pain,
while burning after meals suggests GERD .
Question 2
Which of the following is a core competency of the "Clinical
Judgment Model" in advanced physical assessment?
A) Deferring differential diagnoses until lab results return
B) Recognizing cues and analyzing information to form hypotheses
C) Focusing only on the chief complaint to avoid bias
D) Relying solely on technology for assessment
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment involves cue recognition, hypothesis
formation, prioritization, and outcome evaluation. It is an active
cognitive process, not passive data collection .
Question 3
A 66-year-old female museum curator presents for a routine exam.
On examination, a notably enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is
appreciated on the right side. The node is nontender and feels firm
and rubbery. Which of the following is true?
A) This is likely reactive and will resolve on its own
B) Firm, rubbery, nontender nodes are characteristic of malignancy
C) This is a classic presentation of an inguinal hernia
D) The patient should be reassured and seen again in 6 months
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (especially on the left,
Virchow's node) is particularly concerning for metastatic
malignancy, often from the chest or abdomen. Nontender, firm,
rubbery nodes suggest malignancy; tender nodes suggest infection .
,Question 4
Primary prevention is defined as:
A) Screening for early detection of disease
B) Interventions designed to prevent disease
C) Rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent disease progression
D) Treatment to reduce recurrence
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to remove the causes of disease
before it occurs (e.g., immunizations). Secondary prevention is
screening; Tertiary is treatment/rehab .
SECTION 2: NEUROLOGIC & CRANIAL NERVES
Question 5
A 16-year-old male presents with congenital right upper eyelid
drooping (ptosis). Which cranial nerve is involved?
A) CN IV (Trochlear)
B) CN VI (Abducens)
C) CN III (Oculomotor)
D) CN VII (Facial)
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: CN III (Oculomotor) innervates the levator palpebrae
superioris muscle, which lifts the eyelid. Dysfunction leads to ptosis .
Question 6
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of the pharynx and
provides sensory fibers to the posterior third of the tongue?
A) CN V (Trigeminal)
, B) CN VII (Facial)
C) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) is responsible for the gag
reflex, swallowing (pharyngeal muscles), and taste/sensation on the
posterior 1/3 of the tongue .
Question 7
A 35-year-old female with a history of migraines presents with
worsening symptoms. She reports waking up at night with
headaches and nausea. Her only medication is OCPs. Best next step?
A) Order an MRI immediately
B) Prescribe a triptan for the migraine
C) Take a further history and perform a very careful neurological
exam
D) Discontinue OCPs
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: "Red flags" in headache (waking up at night, change in
pattern) require a thorough neuro exam to rule out increased
intracranial pressure or a secondary cause, especially given the
stroke risk associated with OCPs .
Question 8
Which statements are true regarding risks and rapid recognition of
suspected stroke? (Select all that apply)
A) Obesity doubles the risk of stroke even without associated
glucose intolerance
B) Atrial fibrillation is a protective factor against stroke
C) Hypertension is the leading risk factor for both ischemic and
Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 100
NR-509 Advanced Physical Assessment
NR 509 Midterm and Finals Examplify
Online Proctored Exam Questions and
Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
SECTION 1: GENERAL & CLINICAL REASONING
Question 1
A 45-year-old male presents with chest pain. Which history finding
is most consistent with angina pectoris?
A) Sharp pain worsened by deep inspiration
B) Burning sensation after meals, relieved by antacids
C) Substernal pressure precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest
D) Constant ache localized to the left pectoral muscle
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: Angina is typically described as pressure, heaviness, or
squeezing in the substernal region provoked by exertion or
emotional stress and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Sharp pain
,worsened by inspiration suggests pericarditis or pleuritic pain,
while burning after meals suggests GERD .
Question 2
Which of the following is a core competency of the "Clinical
Judgment Model" in advanced physical assessment?
A) Deferring differential diagnoses until lab results return
B) Recognizing cues and analyzing information to form hypotheses
C) Focusing only on the chief complaint to avoid bias
D) Relying solely on technology for assessment
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment involves cue recognition, hypothesis
formation, prioritization, and outcome evaluation. It is an active
cognitive process, not passive data collection .
Question 3
A 66-year-old female museum curator presents for a routine exam.
On examination, a notably enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is
appreciated on the right side. The node is nontender and feels firm
and rubbery. Which of the following is true?
A) This is likely reactive and will resolve on its own
B) Firm, rubbery, nontender nodes are characteristic of malignancy
C) This is a classic presentation of an inguinal hernia
D) The patient should be reassured and seen again in 6 months
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (especially on the left,
Virchow's node) is particularly concerning for metastatic
malignancy, often from the chest or abdomen. Nontender, firm,
rubbery nodes suggest malignancy; tender nodes suggest infection .
,Question 4
Primary prevention is defined as:
A) Screening for early detection of disease
B) Interventions designed to prevent disease
C) Rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent disease progression
D) Treatment to reduce recurrence
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to remove the causes of disease
before it occurs (e.g., immunizations). Secondary prevention is
screening; Tertiary is treatment/rehab .
SECTION 2: NEUROLOGIC & CRANIAL NERVES
Question 5
A 16-year-old male presents with congenital right upper eyelid
drooping (ptosis). Which cranial nerve is involved?
A) CN IV (Trochlear)
B) CN VI (Abducens)
C) CN III (Oculomotor)
D) CN VII (Facial)
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: CN III (Oculomotor) innervates the levator palpebrae
superioris muscle, which lifts the eyelid. Dysfunction leads to ptosis .
Question 6
Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of the pharynx and
provides sensory fibers to the posterior third of the tongue?
A) CN V (Trigeminal)
, B) CN VII (Facial)
C) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) is responsible for the gag
reflex, swallowing (pharyngeal muscles), and taste/sensation on the
posterior 1/3 of the tongue .
Question 7
A 35-year-old female with a history of migraines presents with
worsening symptoms. She reports waking up at night with
headaches and nausea. Her only medication is OCPs. Best next step?
A) Order an MRI immediately
B) Prescribe a triptan for the migraine
C) Take a further history and perform a very careful neurological
exam
D) Discontinue OCPs
Correct ,,,ANSWER,,,,: C
Rationale: "Red flags" in headache (waking up at night, change in
pattern) require a thorough neuro exam to rule out increased
intracranial pressure or a secondary cause, especially given the
stroke risk associated with OCPs .
Question 8
Which statements are true regarding risks and rapid recognition of
suspected stroke? (Select all that apply)
A) Obesity doubles the risk of stroke even without associated
glucose intolerance
B) Atrial fibrillation is a protective factor against stroke
C) Hypertension is the leading risk factor for both ischemic and
