AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS ALL
WITH RATIONALED LATEST THIS YEAR
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam
The AORN Periop 101 Final Exam evaluates competency in perioperative nursing across key
domains: surgical asepsis and sterile technique (hand hygiene, gloving, draping, sterile field
maintenance, sterilization methods), patient positioning (physiological effects, pressure injury
prevention, nerve protection), surgical skin preparation (antiseptic agents, application
techniques, hair removal), infection prevention (wound classification, SSI prevention,
environmental controls), surgical counts and foreign body retention prevention, fire
safety (operating room fire risk reduction), medication safety (labeling, handling, local
anesthetic systemic toxicity), electrosurgery safety, anesthesia support (anesthesia types,
malignant hyperthermia, patient monitoring), perioperative documentation (legal
requirements, PICO questions, cost containment), specialty procedures (pediatric, bariatric,
robotic, trauma, orthopedic), and emergency preparedness (hemorrhage, cardiac arrest,
equipment failure).
250 Randomized AORN Periop 101 MCQs with Summarized Rationales
1. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, the surgeon encounters purulent inflammation and
requests a culture. The procedure is completed laparoscopically without conversion to open.
How should the wound class be documented?
A) Clean
B) Clean-contaminated
C) Contaminated
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D) Dirty/infected
Correct answer: D
Purulent inflammation indicates established infection, meeting criteria for Class IV
(dirty/infected) regardless of laparoscopic approach; the presence of pus defines the
classification.
2. Which perioperative team member is qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient?
A) Operating surgeon
B) Registered nurse first assistant
C) Anesthesiologist or CRNA
D) Surgical technologist
Correct answer: C
Only licensed anesthesia providers (anesthesiologists, CRNAs, anesthesia assistants) are
qualified to administer anesthesia; the operating surgeon is not licensed for anesthesia delivery.
3. What is the most critical first action when a count discrepancy occurs during a surgical
procedure?
A) Call for anterior and lateral x-ray of the surgical site
B) Inform the nurse supervisor immediately
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C) Instruct the scrub person to search for the missing item
D) Inform the surgical team of the discrepancy
Correct answer: D
The RN circulator must immediately inform the entire surgical team of the count discrepancy so
all members can participate in the search before the wound is closed.
4. Which nerve is most frequently injured as a result of improper arm positioning during
surgery?
A) Brachial plexus
B) Lumbar plexus
C) Sciatic nerve
D) Radial nerve
Correct answer: A
*Brachial plexus injury is the most common positioning-related nerve injury, typically occurring
when arms are abducted >90 degrees or when arm boards are improperly positioned.*
5. An area of painful skin with abrasions or shallow craters would be classified as which stage of
pressure injury?
A) Stage I
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B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Correct answer: B
Stage II pressure injury presents as partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, appearing as
an intact or ruptured blister or shallow crater without visible fat or deeper tissue.
6. A patient undergoing a procedure under local anesthesia reports circumoral numbness and
blurred vision. What condition should the perioperative nurse suspect?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Local anesthetic systemic toxicity
C) Malignant hyperthermia
D) Vasovagal response
Correct answer: B
Circumoral numbness, blurred vision, tinnitus, and dizziness are early neurological signs of LAST,
requiring immediate treatment with intralipid therapy.
7. Which statement correctly describes recommendations for preoperative patient skin
antisepsis?