NUR 283 Comp Exam Comprehensive 160 Study
Questions and Answers With Rationales| 2026 Updated
| 100% Correct.
SECTION 1: Comprehensive Exam Key Questions (160 Items)
Topic 1: Professional Nursing Practice & Prioritization (Questions 1-15)
Q1. The nurse working on a pediatric unit has received the hand-off report and is reviewing
client data and orders. Which client should the nurse plan to see first?
A. A toddler with bronchiolitis on room air and mild wheezing
B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula
C. A preschooler with otitis media awaiting discharge
D. A school-age child with a simple fracture in a cast
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infants with pertussis are at high risk for apnea and severe respiratory compromise.
Any child on supplemental oxygen with a respiratory diagnosis is a higher priority than stable
conditions.
Q2. The nurse working in an outpatient clinic is assessing clients who are waiting. Which client
should the nurse have the primary healthcare provider see first?
A. 28-year-old with sprained ankle and mild swelling
B. 45-year-old with pleurisy reporting worsening shortness of breath
C. 32-year-old with seasonal allergies and nasal congestion
D. 55-year-old with chronic low-back pain requesting a refill
☑ Correct Answer: B
1
,Rationale: Worsening dyspnea in a client with pleuritic pain may indicate pneumonia,
pulmonary embolism, or respiratory failure and demands immediate evaluation.
Q3. The nurse has received the hand-off report and is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse instruct the UAP to perform first?
A. Assist a post-hip replacement client with first ambulation
B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose on a client who had a hypoglycemic episode 30 minutes ago
and received dextrose IV
C. Change linens for a client who was incontinent of urine
D. Take vital signs on a client scheduled for afternoon surgery
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rechecking blood glucose after hypoglycemia treatment is time-sensitive and
determines if treatment was effective. The other tasks are important but less emergent.
Q4. The nurse is caring for a male client with full-thickness burns to 50% of the lower body. It is
a priority to notify the primary healthcare provider if the client has:
A. Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
B. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
C. Temperature of 104.2°F (40.1°C)
D. Temperature of 97.7°F (36.5°C)
☑ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A very high fever in a major burn client suggests sepsis or severe infection—life-
threatening complications requiring immediate provider notification.
2
,Q5. The nurse working in the emergency department is triaging clients after an explosion.
Which client should the nurse identify as the priority for treatment?
A. Client with simple arm laceration and controlled bleeding
B. Client with second-degree burns to chest and arms with respiratory rate greater than 30
C. Client with closed tibia fracture and intact pulses
D. Client with minor abrasions
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Burns to the chest with tachypnea indicate potential airway or respiratory
compromise, which is a life-threatening priority.
Q6. A patient with a confirmed pulmonary embolism presents with low blood pressure and
altered mental status. What is the most appropriate intervention regarding fibrinolytic therapy?
A. Administer fibrinolytic drugs due to signs of hemodynamic instability
B. Hold fibrinolytic therapy as the patient is stable
C. Administer half the normal dose
D. Wait for further lab results before deciding
☑ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemodynamically unstable PE with hypotension and altered mental status requires
fibrinolytic therapy (thrombolytics) to rapidly dissolve the clot and restore perfusion.
Q7. The emergency department nurse is caring for a patient with left anterior chest pain,
suggesting possible acute MI. Which action will the nurse take first?
A. Insert an IV catheter
B. Administer oxygen
3
, C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Draw blood for troponin I measurement
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In suspected MI, the priority is ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administer oxygen
first, then establish IV access and obtain cardiac enzymes.
Q8. A nurse is caring for an agitated patient at risk of falling. Which alternative to restraints
could the nurse implement?
A. Using physical restraints
B. Hourly rounding
C. Limiting family visitation
D. Administering sedatives
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hourly rounding is an effective restraint alternative that maintains patient safety
while preserving dignity. Restraints should be a last resort.
Q9. Which of the following could be used as an alternative to a restraint?
A. All of the above
B. Offer diversional activities (games, books)
C. Reduce stimulation, noise, and light
D. Assess for pain and treat appropriately
☑ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Multiple non-pharmacologic interventions including diversional activities,
environmental modification, and pain assessment should be attempted before restraints.
4
Questions and Answers With Rationales| 2026 Updated
| 100% Correct.
SECTION 1: Comprehensive Exam Key Questions (160 Items)
Topic 1: Professional Nursing Practice & Prioritization (Questions 1-15)
Q1. The nurse working on a pediatric unit has received the hand-off report and is reviewing
client data and orders. Which client should the nurse plan to see first?
A. A toddler with bronchiolitis on room air and mild wheezing
B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula
C. A preschooler with otitis media awaiting discharge
D. A school-age child with a simple fracture in a cast
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infants with pertussis are at high risk for apnea and severe respiratory compromise.
Any child on supplemental oxygen with a respiratory diagnosis is a higher priority than stable
conditions.
Q2. The nurse working in an outpatient clinic is assessing clients who are waiting. Which client
should the nurse have the primary healthcare provider see first?
A. 28-year-old with sprained ankle and mild swelling
B. 45-year-old with pleurisy reporting worsening shortness of breath
C. 32-year-old with seasonal allergies and nasal congestion
D. 55-year-old with chronic low-back pain requesting a refill
☑ Correct Answer: B
1
,Rationale: Worsening dyspnea in a client with pleuritic pain may indicate pneumonia,
pulmonary embolism, or respiratory failure and demands immediate evaluation.
Q3. The nurse has received the hand-off report and is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse instruct the UAP to perform first?
A. Assist a post-hip replacement client with first ambulation
B. Obtain a capillary blood glucose on a client who had a hypoglycemic episode 30 minutes ago
and received dextrose IV
C. Change linens for a client who was incontinent of urine
D. Take vital signs on a client scheduled for afternoon surgery
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rechecking blood glucose after hypoglycemia treatment is time-sensitive and
determines if treatment was effective. The other tasks are important but less emergent.
Q4. The nurse is caring for a male client with full-thickness burns to 50% of the lower body. It is
a priority to notify the primary healthcare provider if the client has:
A. Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
B. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
C. Temperature of 104.2°F (40.1°C)
D. Temperature of 97.7°F (36.5°C)
☑ Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A very high fever in a major burn client suggests sepsis or severe infection—life-
threatening complications requiring immediate provider notification.
2
,Q5. The nurse working in the emergency department is triaging clients after an explosion.
Which client should the nurse identify as the priority for treatment?
A. Client with simple arm laceration and controlled bleeding
B. Client with second-degree burns to chest and arms with respiratory rate greater than 30
C. Client with closed tibia fracture and intact pulses
D. Client with minor abrasions
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Burns to the chest with tachypnea indicate potential airway or respiratory
compromise, which is a life-threatening priority.
Q6. A patient with a confirmed pulmonary embolism presents with low blood pressure and
altered mental status. What is the most appropriate intervention regarding fibrinolytic therapy?
A. Administer fibrinolytic drugs due to signs of hemodynamic instability
B. Hold fibrinolytic therapy as the patient is stable
C. Administer half the normal dose
D. Wait for further lab results before deciding
☑ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemodynamically unstable PE with hypotension and altered mental status requires
fibrinolytic therapy (thrombolytics) to rapidly dissolve the clot and restore perfusion.
Q7. The emergency department nurse is caring for a patient with left anterior chest pain,
suggesting possible acute MI. Which action will the nurse take first?
A. Insert an IV catheter
B. Administer oxygen
3
, C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Draw blood for troponin I measurement
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In suspected MI, the priority is ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administer oxygen
first, then establish IV access and obtain cardiac enzymes.
Q8. A nurse is caring for an agitated patient at risk of falling. Which alternative to restraints
could the nurse implement?
A. Using physical restraints
B. Hourly rounding
C. Limiting family visitation
D. Administering sedatives
☑ Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hourly rounding is an effective restraint alternative that maintains patient safety
while preserving dignity. Restraints should be a last resort.
Q9. Which of the following could be used as an alternative to a restraint?
A. All of the above
B. Offer diversional activities (games, books)
C. Reduce stimulation, noise, and light
D. Assess for pain and treat appropriately
☑ Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Multiple non-pharmacologic interventions including diversional activities,
environmental modification, and pain assessment should be attempted before restraints.
4
