COMPREHENSIVE ATI RN PHARMACOLOGY AND
NGN PRACTICE EXAM CHAMPION TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - UPDATED 2026
(GRADED A+)
Subject: Nursing Pharmacology and Medication Administration
Subtopic: Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics and Clinical Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which assessment finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) Persistent cough and facial swelling
B) Mild fatigue in the evening
C) Heart rate of 78/min
D) Blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Persistent cough and facial swelling
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can cause angioedema, a potentially life-threatening adverse
reaction involving swelling of the face and airway structures.
Question 2: A client receiving insulin therapy becomes diaphoretic, confused, and tachycardic. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer rapid-acting carbohydrate
B) Restrict oral fluids
C) Administer long-acting insulin
D) Encourage immediate ambulation exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Administer rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: These findings indicate hypoglycemia, which requires immediate correction with rapidly
absorbable glucose to prevent neurologic deterioration.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client prescribed warfarin therapy. Which client statement indicates
understanding?
A) “I should report unusual bleeding immediately.”
B) “I can take aspirin daily without concern.”
C) “I should stop the medication if bruising develops.”
D) “Routine blood testing is unnecessary.”
Correct Answer: A) - “I should report unusual bleeding immediately.”
Rationale: Warfarin significantly increases bleeding risk. Prompt reporting of bleeding manifestations
helps prevent serious hemorrhagic complications.
,Comprehensive ATI RN Pharmacology and NGN Practice Exam - Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Question 4: A client prescribed morphine sulfate develops respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils.
Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Calcium gluconate exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory and
neurologic depression.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value is most
important to monitor?
A) Serum potassium
B) Platelet count
C) White blood cell count
D) Serum bilirubin exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Serum potassium
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, potentially causing dangerous hypokalemia and
cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 6: A client prescribed metformin should be monitored closely for which serious complication?
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Polycythemia
D) Respiratory alkalosis exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin-associated lactic acidosis is rare but potentially fatal, particularly in clients with
renal impairment.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client prescribed tetracycline. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A) “Take the medication with milk.”
B) “Avoid prolonged sun exposure.”
C) “Discontinue the medication once symptoms improve.”
D) “Take the medication immediately before sleep.”
, Comprehensive ATI RN Pharmacology and NGN Practice Exam - Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Correct Answer: B) - “Avoid prolonged sun exposure.”
Rationale: Tetracycline antibiotics can cause significant photosensitivity reactions.
Question 8: A client prescribed digoxin reports nausea, anorexia, and yellow vision. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A) Administer the next scheduled dose
B) Hold the medication and assess apical pulse
C) Encourage increased sodium intake
D) Continue therapy without changes exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Hold the medication and assess apical pulse
Rationale: These findings are classic manifestations of digoxin toxicity requiring immediate assessment.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed heparin therapy. Which medication should be
available for emergency reversal?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Flumazenil
D) Naloxone exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant effects.
Question 10: A client prescribed albuterol reports tremors and palpitations after inhaler use. Which
explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) “These effects are related to beta-adrenergic stimulation.”
B) “You are experiencing severe allergic reaction.”
C) “The medication is causing opioid toxicity.”
D) “The inhaler should be discontinued immediately.”
Correct Answer: A) - “These effects are related to beta-adrenergic stimulation.”
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta receptors and may cause tachycardia, tremors, and palpitations as
common side effects.
Question 11: A nurse is administering intravenous potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia.
Which action is appropriate?
A) Administer the medication by IV push
B) Infuse the medication using an infusion pump
NGN PRACTICE EXAM CHAMPION TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - UPDATED 2026
(GRADED A+)
Subject: Nursing Pharmacology and Medication Administration
Subtopic: Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics and Clinical Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which assessment finding
requires immediate intervention?
A) Persistent cough and facial swelling
B) Mild fatigue in the evening
C) Heart rate of 78/min
D) Blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Persistent cough and facial swelling
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can cause angioedema, a potentially life-threatening adverse
reaction involving swelling of the face and airway structures.
Question 2: A client receiving insulin therapy becomes diaphoretic, confused, and tachycardic. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer rapid-acting carbohydrate
B) Restrict oral fluids
C) Administer long-acting insulin
D) Encourage immediate ambulation exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Administer rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: These findings indicate hypoglycemia, which requires immediate correction with rapidly
absorbable glucose to prevent neurologic deterioration.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client prescribed warfarin therapy. Which client statement indicates
understanding?
A) “I should report unusual bleeding immediately.”
B) “I can take aspirin daily without concern.”
C) “I should stop the medication if bruising develops.”
D) “Routine blood testing is unnecessary.”
Correct Answer: A) - “I should report unusual bleeding immediately.”
Rationale: Warfarin significantly increases bleeding risk. Prompt reporting of bleeding manifestations
helps prevent serious hemorrhagic complications.
,Comprehensive ATI RN Pharmacology and NGN Practice Exam - Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Question 4: A client prescribed morphine sulfate develops respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils.
Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Calcium gluconate exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory and
neurologic depression.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value is most
important to monitor?
A) Serum potassium
B) Platelet count
C) White blood cell count
D) Serum bilirubin exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Serum potassium
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, potentially causing dangerous hypokalemia and
cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 6: A client prescribed metformin should be monitored closely for which serious complication?
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Polycythemia
D) Respiratory alkalosis exclusively
Correct Answer: A) - Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin-associated lactic acidosis is rare but potentially fatal, particularly in clients with
renal impairment.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client prescribed tetracycline. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A) “Take the medication with milk.”
B) “Avoid prolonged sun exposure.”
C) “Discontinue the medication once symptoms improve.”
D) “Take the medication immediately before sleep.”
, Comprehensive ATI RN Pharmacology and NGN Practice Exam - Updated 2026 (Graded A+)
Correct Answer: B) - “Avoid prolonged sun exposure.”
Rationale: Tetracycline antibiotics can cause significant photosensitivity reactions.
Question 8: A client prescribed digoxin reports nausea, anorexia, and yellow vision. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A) Administer the next scheduled dose
B) Hold the medication and assess apical pulse
C) Encourage increased sodium intake
D) Continue therapy without changes exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Hold the medication and assess apical pulse
Rationale: These findings are classic manifestations of digoxin toxicity requiring immediate assessment.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client prescribed heparin therapy. Which medication should be
available for emergency reversal?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Flumazenil
D) Naloxone exclusively
Correct Answer: B) - Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant effects.
Question 10: A client prescribed albuterol reports tremors and palpitations after inhaler use. Which
explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) “These effects are related to beta-adrenergic stimulation.”
B) “You are experiencing severe allergic reaction.”
C) “The medication is causing opioid toxicity.”
D) “The inhaler should be discontinued immediately.”
Correct Answer: A) - “These effects are related to beta-adrenergic stimulation.”
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta receptors and may cause tachycardia, tremors, and palpitations as
common side effects.
Question 11: A nurse is administering intravenous potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia.
Which action is appropriate?
A) Administer the medication by IV push
B) Infuse the medication using an infusion pump
