CPC EXAM REVIEW 2026 STUDY
GUIDE | PRACTICE QUESTIONS,
ANSWERS & RATIONALES
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,Which neuromuscular monitoring technique is D - Posttetanic count stimulation
appropriate for the evaluation of time to recovery from a
deep blockage with rocuronium (Zemuron)?
a. Double-burst stimulation
b. Train-of-Four stimulation
c. Tetanic stimulation
d. Posttetanic count stimulation
What is responsible for an abrupt decrease in end-tidal D. Anesthesia circuit disconnection
carbon dioxide (ETCO2) to near zero with the absence of
an ETCO2 waveform?
a. Exhausted carbon dioxide absorbent material
b. Malfunction of unidirectional inspiratory valve
c. Loss of suction on the scavenge system
d. Anesthesia circuit disconnection
Which muscle relaxant is MOST appropriate in patients B. Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
with advanced liver disease?
a. Vecuronium (Norcuron)
b. Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
c. Pancuronium (Pavulon)
d. Rocuronium (Zemuron)
During administration of anesthesia to a patient with B. Administration of 100% oxygen
sickle cell disease, which action minimizes sickling?
a. Continued hypoventilation
b. Administration of 100% oxygen
c. Restriction of fluids
d. Avoidance of hyperthermia
Which valve on the anesthesia gas machine allows A. Unidirectional
respiratory gas to flow to and from a patient?
a. Unidirectional
b. Adjustable pressure-limiting
c. Shutoff
d. Needle
Which is an appropriate intervention with complete loss A. Fully open the oxygen E-Cylinder
of oxygen pipeline pressure?
a. Fully open the E-Cylinder
b. Consider mechanical ventilation
c. Push the oxygen flush valve
d. Use a high fresh gas flow of oxygen
The MOST important action to enhance the b. Ensuring a tight circuit mask fit on the patient
denitrogentaion of the lungs prior to induction of
anesthesia is:
a. having the patient breathe deeply 3x on room air
b. ensuring a tight circuit mask fit on the patient
c. asking the patient to take a deep breath and cough
d. placing the patient on nasal cannula oxygen at 2L/min
preoperatively
,Which factor correlates with increased risk for C. Age 70 years or older
postoperative pulmonary complications?
a. Lower abdominal surgery
b. Monitored anesthesia care
c. Age 70 years or older
d. Controlled asthma
Which risk factor is a major predictor for perioperative A. Unstable angina
cardiovascular risk?
a. Unstable angina
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Compensated congestive heart failure
d. Age older than 80 years
Which cartilage in the larynx is unpaired? A. Thyroid
a. Thyroid
b. Corniculate
c. Cuneiform
d. Arytenoid
Which drug is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? C. Tetracaine
a. Ropivacaine (Naropin)
b. Lidocaine (xylocaine)
c. Tetracaine
d. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
A significant drug interaction may occur between the B. Meperidine (Demerol)
monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and:
a. Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
b. Meperidine (Demerol)
c. Midazolam (versed)
d. Codeine
What is the INITIAL step to take with an endotracheal A. Disconnect the circuit from the patient
tube fire?
a. Disconnect the circuit from the patient
b. Put out the flame with a fire extinguisher
c. Place wet cloths over the area
d. Increase the nitrous oxide
Anesthetic management of a patient with severe aortic C. Adequate preload
stenosis includes:
a. afterload reduction
b. modest bradycardia
c. adequate preload
d. decreased contractility
What is the BEST treatment for this ECG abnormality? C. Calcium chloride 10%, 10 mL IV
(prolonged PR interval and peaked T waves)
a. Magnesium sulfate, 1-2 g
b. Furosemide (Lasix), 10 mg IV
c. Calcium chloride 10%, 10 mL IV
d. Phosphate, 5-16 mg/kg IV
, The tip of a laryngeal mask airway should rest in which A. Trachea
airway structure?
a. Trachea
b. Palatopharyngeal arch
c. Orophyarynx
d. Hypopharynx
Which is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C. Needles and syringes are single-use items.
(CDC) mandate on safe injection practices for the
operating room?
a. Needles must be recapped prior to disposal
b. Single-dose medication vials may be used for more
than 1 patient.
c. Needles and syringes are single-use items
d. Multidose vials may be used for multiple patients if the
needle is changed on the syringe
Up to what percentage of receptors may remain blocked D. 75
with 4 out of 4 twitches on the neuromuscular blockage
monitor?
a. 95
b. 25
c. 55
d. 75
Which is the MOST reliable measure of renal function? d. Creatinine clearance
a. Serum potassium level
b. Blood urea nitrogen level
c. Serum sodium level
d. Creatinine clearance
Which medication should be administered to a patient C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
who is unresponsive and hypoxic after receiving
midazolam (Versed) for a 20-minute gastrointestinal
procedure?
a. Naloxone (Narcan)
b. Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
c. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
d. Atropine
Which device is operational to prevent the simultaneous B. Interlock
use of more than one anesthetic vaporizer?
a. Quick connect
b. Interlock
c. Agent-limiting
d. Variable bypass
GUIDE | PRACTICE QUESTIONS,
ANSWERS & RATIONALES
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,Which neuromuscular monitoring technique is D - Posttetanic count stimulation
appropriate for the evaluation of time to recovery from a
deep blockage with rocuronium (Zemuron)?
a. Double-burst stimulation
b. Train-of-Four stimulation
c. Tetanic stimulation
d. Posttetanic count stimulation
What is responsible for an abrupt decrease in end-tidal D. Anesthesia circuit disconnection
carbon dioxide (ETCO2) to near zero with the absence of
an ETCO2 waveform?
a. Exhausted carbon dioxide absorbent material
b. Malfunction of unidirectional inspiratory valve
c. Loss of suction on the scavenge system
d. Anesthesia circuit disconnection
Which muscle relaxant is MOST appropriate in patients B. Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
with advanced liver disease?
a. Vecuronium (Norcuron)
b. Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
c. Pancuronium (Pavulon)
d. Rocuronium (Zemuron)
During administration of anesthesia to a patient with B. Administration of 100% oxygen
sickle cell disease, which action minimizes sickling?
a. Continued hypoventilation
b. Administration of 100% oxygen
c. Restriction of fluids
d. Avoidance of hyperthermia
Which valve on the anesthesia gas machine allows A. Unidirectional
respiratory gas to flow to and from a patient?
a. Unidirectional
b. Adjustable pressure-limiting
c. Shutoff
d. Needle
Which is an appropriate intervention with complete loss A. Fully open the oxygen E-Cylinder
of oxygen pipeline pressure?
a. Fully open the E-Cylinder
b. Consider mechanical ventilation
c. Push the oxygen flush valve
d. Use a high fresh gas flow of oxygen
The MOST important action to enhance the b. Ensuring a tight circuit mask fit on the patient
denitrogentaion of the lungs prior to induction of
anesthesia is:
a. having the patient breathe deeply 3x on room air
b. ensuring a tight circuit mask fit on the patient
c. asking the patient to take a deep breath and cough
d. placing the patient on nasal cannula oxygen at 2L/min
preoperatively
,Which factor correlates with increased risk for C. Age 70 years or older
postoperative pulmonary complications?
a. Lower abdominal surgery
b. Monitored anesthesia care
c. Age 70 years or older
d. Controlled asthma
Which risk factor is a major predictor for perioperative A. Unstable angina
cardiovascular risk?
a. Unstable angina
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Compensated congestive heart failure
d. Age older than 80 years
Which cartilage in the larynx is unpaired? A. Thyroid
a. Thyroid
b. Corniculate
c. Cuneiform
d. Arytenoid
Which drug is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? C. Tetracaine
a. Ropivacaine (Naropin)
b. Lidocaine (xylocaine)
c. Tetracaine
d. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
A significant drug interaction may occur between the B. Meperidine (Demerol)
monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and:
a. Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
b. Meperidine (Demerol)
c. Midazolam (versed)
d. Codeine
What is the INITIAL step to take with an endotracheal A. Disconnect the circuit from the patient
tube fire?
a. Disconnect the circuit from the patient
b. Put out the flame with a fire extinguisher
c. Place wet cloths over the area
d. Increase the nitrous oxide
Anesthetic management of a patient with severe aortic C. Adequate preload
stenosis includes:
a. afterload reduction
b. modest bradycardia
c. adequate preload
d. decreased contractility
What is the BEST treatment for this ECG abnormality? C. Calcium chloride 10%, 10 mL IV
(prolonged PR interval and peaked T waves)
a. Magnesium sulfate, 1-2 g
b. Furosemide (Lasix), 10 mg IV
c. Calcium chloride 10%, 10 mL IV
d. Phosphate, 5-16 mg/kg IV
, The tip of a laryngeal mask airway should rest in which A. Trachea
airway structure?
a. Trachea
b. Palatopharyngeal arch
c. Orophyarynx
d. Hypopharynx
Which is the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C. Needles and syringes are single-use items.
(CDC) mandate on safe injection practices for the
operating room?
a. Needles must be recapped prior to disposal
b. Single-dose medication vials may be used for more
than 1 patient.
c. Needles and syringes are single-use items
d. Multidose vials may be used for multiple patients if the
needle is changed on the syringe
Up to what percentage of receptors may remain blocked D. 75
with 4 out of 4 twitches on the neuromuscular blockage
monitor?
a. 95
b. 25
c. 55
d. 75
Which is the MOST reliable measure of renal function? d. Creatinine clearance
a. Serum potassium level
b. Blood urea nitrogen level
c. Serum sodium level
d. Creatinine clearance
Which medication should be administered to a patient C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
who is unresponsive and hypoxic after receiving
midazolam (Versed) for a 20-minute gastrointestinal
procedure?
a. Naloxone (Narcan)
b. Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
c. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
d. Atropine
Which device is operational to prevent the simultaneous B. Interlock
use of more than one anesthetic vaporizer?
a. Quick connect
b. Interlock
c. Agent-limiting
d. Variable bypass
