FORTIS COLLEGE PN MATERNITY HESI EXAM
PREP 2026–2027 250+ VERIFIED PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS &
DETAILED RATIONALES Complete Maternal-
Newborn Nursing Study Guide for Practical Nursing
Students | Updated HESI Test Bank
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (NORMAL & HIGH-RISK
PREGNANCY)
Questions 1–75
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which
action should the PN take FIRST?
a) Perform a vaginal exam
b) Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
c) Give oral fluids
d) Send client home with instructions
Answer: b) Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
Rationale: Painless bleeding at 28 weeks is classic for placenta previa; vaginal
exam is contraindicated until previa is ruled out because it can cause
catastrophic hemorrhage. The priority is maternal-fetal assessment with
monitoring.
2. A primigravida asks when she will first feel fetal movement. The PN
correctly responds:
a) 8–10 weeks
b) 18–20 weeks
c) 24–26 weeks
d) 30 weeks
,Answer: b) 18–20 weeks
Rationale: Quickening (first fetal movement) is typically felt at 18–20
weeks in first pregnancies (primigravidas) and earlier (14–18 weeks) in
multiparas.
3. Which finding is expected during a normal 12-week prenatal visit?
a) Fetal heart rate 160 bpm via Doppler
b) Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
c) Positive serum β-hCG (already known)
d) Fetal movement felt by examiner
Answer: b) Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
Rationale: At 12 weeks, the uterus is just palpable above the symphysis pubis.
Fetal heart rate may be heard but fundal height is the expected landmark at
this gestation.
4. A client’s LMP was March 15, 2025. Using Nägele’s rule, the EDD is:
a) December 22, 2025
b) December 22, 2025
c) January 15, 2026
d) November 8, 2025
Answer: a) December 22, 2025
Rationale: Nägele’s rule: Subtract 3 months, add 7 days. March 15 →
December 15 + 7 days = December 22, 2025.
5. A client at 16 weeks asks about the quad screen. The PN explains it screens
for:
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural tube defects
,c) Placental abruption
d) Preterm labor risk
Answer: b) Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural tube defects
Rationale: The quad screen (AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin-A)
assesses risk for chromosomal abnormalities (Trisomy 21, Trisomy
18) and neural tube defects.
6. Which symptom reported at 20 weeks requires immediate physician
notification?
a) Heartburn after meals
b) Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
c) Backache with prolonged standing
d) Increased vaginal discharge
Answer: b) Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
Rationale: Facial swelling + headache are red flags for preeclampsia and
require prompt evaluation. Heartburn, backache, and increased discharge
are common discomforts of pregnancy.
7. A client’s 1-hour GTT result is 140 mg/dL. PN teaching should include:
a) “You have gestational diabetes.”
b) “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
c) “Avoid all sugars.”
d) “Start insulin tonight.”
Answer: b) “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
Rationale: A 1-hour GTT ≥140 mg/dL is not diagnostic—it indicates the need
for the 3-hour GTT for confirmation of gestational diabetes.
, 8. At 36 weeks, fundal height measures 32 cm. PN priority is to:
a) Reassure client
b) Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid assessment
c) Increase oral fluids
d) Begin kick counts
Answer: b) Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid
assessment
Rationale: A discrepancy of >2 cm between gestational age and fundal height
warrants ultrasound to rule out intrauterine growth restriction
(IUGR) or oligohydramnios.
9. Which immunization is safe during pregnancy?
a) MMR
b) Influenza (inactivated)
c) Varicella
d) HPV (live-attenuated)
Answer: b) Influenza (inactivated)
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in any trimester;
live vaccines (MMR, varicella, live HPV) are contraindicated during
pregnancy.
10. Which physiological cause(s) for constipation during pregnancy should
the PN explain to a client in the first trimester? (Select all that apply.)
a) Displacement of the colon
b) Tightening of the anal sphincter
c) Change in nutrient absorption
d) Shifting of liver placement
e) Decrease in peristalsis
f) Increase bile production
PREP 2026–2027 250+ VERIFIED PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS &
DETAILED RATIONALES Complete Maternal-
Newborn Nursing Study Guide for Practical Nursing
Students | Updated HESI Test Bank
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (NORMAL & HIGH-RISK
PREGNANCY)
Questions 1–75
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which
action should the PN take FIRST?
a) Perform a vaginal exam
b) Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
c) Give oral fluids
d) Send client home with instructions
Answer: b) Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
Rationale: Painless bleeding at 28 weeks is classic for placenta previa; vaginal
exam is contraindicated until previa is ruled out because it can cause
catastrophic hemorrhage. The priority is maternal-fetal assessment with
monitoring.
2. A primigravida asks when she will first feel fetal movement. The PN
correctly responds:
a) 8–10 weeks
b) 18–20 weeks
c) 24–26 weeks
d) 30 weeks
,Answer: b) 18–20 weeks
Rationale: Quickening (first fetal movement) is typically felt at 18–20
weeks in first pregnancies (primigravidas) and earlier (14–18 weeks) in
multiparas.
3. Which finding is expected during a normal 12-week prenatal visit?
a) Fetal heart rate 160 bpm via Doppler
b) Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
c) Positive serum β-hCG (already known)
d) Fetal movement felt by examiner
Answer: b) Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
Rationale: At 12 weeks, the uterus is just palpable above the symphysis pubis.
Fetal heart rate may be heard but fundal height is the expected landmark at
this gestation.
4. A client’s LMP was March 15, 2025. Using Nägele’s rule, the EDD is:
a) December 22, 2025
b) December 22, 2025
c) January 15, 2026
d) November 8, 2025
Answer: a) December 22, 2025
Rationale: Nägele’s rule: Subtract 3 months, add 7 days. March 15 →
December 15 + 7 days = December 22, 2025.
5. A client at 16 weeks asks about the quad screen. The PN explains it screens
for:
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural tube defects
,c) Placental abruption
d) Preterm labor risk
Answer: b) Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural tube defects
Rationale: The quad screen (AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin-A)
assesses risk for chromosomal abnormalities (Trisomy 21, Trisomy
18) and neural tube defects.
6. Which symptom reported at 20 weeks requires immediate physician
notification?
a) Heartburn after meals
b) Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
c) Backache with prolonged standing
d) Increased vaginal discharge
Answer: b) Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
Rationale: Facial swelling + headache are red flags for preeclampsia and
require prompt evaluation. Heartburn, backache, and increased discharge
are common discomforts of pregnancy.
7. A client’s 1-hour GTT result is 140 mg/dL. PN teaching should include:
a) “You have gestational diabetes.”
b) “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
c) “Avoid all sugars.”
d) “Start insulin tonight.”
Answer: b) “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
Rationale: A 1-hour GTT ≥140 mg/dL is not diagnostic—it indicates the need
for the 3-hour GTT for confirmation of gestational diabetes.
, 8. At 36 weeks, fundal height measures 32 cm. PN priority is to:
a) Reassure client
b) Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid assessment
c) Increase oral fluids
d) Begin kick counts
Answer: b) Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid
assessment
Rationale: A discrepancy of >2 cm between gestational age and fundal height
warrants ultrasound to rule out intrauterine growth restriction
(IUGR) or oligohydramnios.
9. Which immunization is safe during pregnancy?
a) MMR
b) Influenza (inactivated)
c) Varicella
d) HPV (live-attenuated)
Answer: b) Influenza (inactivated)
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in any trimester;
live vaccines (MMR, varicella, live HPV) are contraindicated during
pregnancy.
10. Which physiological cause(s) for constipation during pregnancy should
the PN explain to a client in the first trimester? (Select all that apply.)
a) Displacement of the colon
b) Tightening of the anal sphincter
c) Change in nutrient absorption
d) Shifting of liver placement
e) Decrease in peristalsis
f) Increase bile production
