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GCU NSG 300 Exam 2 – Foundations of Nursing | 250 Actual Questions & Answers | 2026 Edition | Verified Practice Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales | Complete Exam Bank for Grand Canyon University

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This comprehensive exam bank contains 250 actual exam questions and answers for Grand Canyon University (GCU) NSG 300 – Foundations of Nursing Exam 2, updated for the 2026/2027 edition and graded A+. The material covers all key domains of foundational nursing practice, including: Infection Control & Safety – Types of precautions (contact, droplet, airborne, protective), C. diff, MRSA, tuberculosis, influenza, varicella (chickenpox), PPE order (gloves → goggles → gown → mask), hand hygiene, sterile technique, central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) prevention, catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) prevention, surgical wound infection, fall prevention (restraints, bed alarms, call lights), fever management, sepsis recognition Mobility & Immobility – Complications of immobility (DVT, pressure injuries, muscle atrophy, contractures, atelectasis, constipation, orthostatic hypotension), range of motion (active, passive, active-assisted), gait belt use, cane and walker instructions, crutch walking (stairs: up with the good, down with the bad), hip replacement precautions (no adduction past midline, no flexion 90°, abductor pillow), cast care, compartment syndrome signs, patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump Skin Integrity & Wound Care – Pressure injury staging (stage 1–4, unstageable, deep tissue injury), wound healing (primary, secondary, tertiary intention), wound assessment (granulation tissue, slough, eschar, epithelialization), wound dressings (transparent film, hydrocolloid, foam, alginate, wet-to-dry), wound infection signs (purulent drainage, erythema, warmth, odor), dehiscence and evisceration (emergency management), negative pressure wound therapy (wound vac), Braden Scale for pressure injury risk Hygiene & Personal Care – Oral care for unconscious patients, NPO patients, and patients with NG tubes, denture care, perineal care (front to back for females), catheter care (clean from meatus outward), bathing (segmental bathing, rest periods), diabetic foot care (no soaking, lotion avoid between toes), tracheostomy care, colostomy and ileostomy care (stoma assessment, pouching system) Nutrition & Hydration – NPO status, clear liquid diet, full liquid diet, mechanical soft diet, pureed diet, dysphagia precautions (high Fowler's, chin tuck), NG tube placement confirmation (X-ray gold standard, pH testing), residual volume management, PEG tube care, enteral feeding (head of bed 30–45°), TPN (total parenteral nutrition) complications, signs of dehydration, renal diet (low potassium, low phosphorus), low-fiber diet, high-fiber diet, low-purine diet (gout) Elimination – Indwelling urinary catheter care (CAUTI prevention, drainage bag placement, securing catheter), straight catheter (intermittent), condom catheter, constipation management (increase fluids, fiber, mobility), fecal impaction (digital disimpaction with order), enema administration (left side-lying Sims' position), colostomy and ileostomy output (normal vs. abnormal), stoma assessment (pink, moist, slightly raised = normal; dark purple/black = ischemia) Oxygenation & Respiratory Care – Tracheostomy care (suctioning, inner cannula cleaning with hydrogen peroxide, dressing change, tie change), chest tube management (water seal chamber, tidaling, continuous bubbling = air leak, disconnection management, occlusive dressing for dislodgment), suctioning technique (apply suction only during withdrawal, limit to 10–15 seconds) Pain Management & Comfort – Pain assessment (0–10 numeric scale, PQRST method, FLACC scale for children), acute vs. chronic pain, PCA pump (lockout interval, monitoring for respiratory depression, family education), epidural analgesia (monitor for respiratory depression, hypotension), nonpharmacologic pain interventions (guided imagery, relaxation breathing, distraction), adjuvant medications for neuropathic pain (gabapentin, pregabalin), naloxone for opioid reversal Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining the clinical reasoning, nursing interventions, and evidence-based practice. Successfully tested and verified for GCU NSG 300 Exam 2. Ideal for nursing students (RN/BSN) and those preparing for foundational nursing exams.

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Institution
GCU NSG 300
Course
GCU NSG 300

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GCU NSG 300 EXAM 2 – FOUNDATIONS OF
NURSING – (2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS 250 VERIFIED PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS &
DETAILED RATIONALES Complete Exam
Bank for Grand Canyon University

SECTION 1: INFECTION CONTROL & SAFETY

Questions 1–50

1. The nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which type of
precautions should the nurse implement?
a) Standard precautions only
b) Contact precautions
c) Droplet precautions
d) Airborne precautions

Answer: b) Contact precautions

Rationale: C. diff requires Contact Precautions (gown and gloves, private room or cohort,
dedicated equipment). Alcohol-based hand rub is not effective; soap and water are
required.



2. The nurse is caring for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of
precautions should the nurse implement?
a) Standard precautions only
b) Contact precautions
c) Droplet precautions
d) Airborne precautions

Answer: d) Airborne precautions

Rationale: Tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions (N95 respirator, negative pressure
room, patient wears mask if transported).

,2|Page


3. Which is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare
setting?
a) Wearing gloves for all patient contact
b) Hand hygiene (handwashing or alcohol-based hand rub)
c) Wearing a mask at all times
d) Isolating all patients

Answer: b) Hand hygiene (handwashing or alcohol-based hand rub)

Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent healthcare-
associated infections (HAIs).



4. The nurse is caring for a patient with influenza. Which type of precautions should the
nurse implement?
a) Standard precautions only
b) Contact precautions
c) Droplet precautions
d) Airborne precautions

Answer: c) Droplet precautions

Rationale: Influenza is transmitted via respiratory droplets (coughing, sneezing). Droplet
Precautions include a surgical mask within 3 feet of the patient.



5. The nurse is caring for a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) in a wound. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
a) Standard precautions only
b) Contact precautions
c) Droplet precautions
d) Airborne precautions

Answer: b) Contact precautions

Rationale: MRSA requires Contact Precautions (gown and gloves, private room or cohort,
dedicated equipment).



6. Which is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles

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b) Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
c) Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
d) Mask, goggles, gown, gloves

Answer: b) Gloves, goggles, gown, mask

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing PPE is: Gloves (most
contaminated), goggles (face shield), gown, then mask (least contaminated).



7. The nurse is caring for a patient on neutropenic precautions (protective isolation). The
nurse should:
a) Place the patient in a negative pressure room
b) Avoid fresh flowers and fruits
c) Wear an N95 mask
d) Cohort the patient with another patient

Answer: b) Avoid fresh flowers and fruits

Rationale: Neutropenic patients are at high risk for infection from environmental sources
(flowers, fruits, vegetables may carry bacteria). Fresh flowers are not allowed.



8. The nurse is applying sterile gloves. Which action is correct?
a) The inside of the glove is considered sterile
b) The outside of the glove is considered sterile
c) The cuff of the glove is considered sterile
d) The nurse should touch only the inside of the glove with bare hands

Answer: d) The nurse should touch only the inside of the glove with bare hands

Rationale: The outside of sterile gloves is sterile. The nurse touches only the inside (cuff)
of the glove with bare hands to maintain sterility.



9. Which patient is at highest risk for falling?
a) A 30-year-old postoperative patient
b) A 75-year-old patient with a history of falls and receiving opioids
c) A 50-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection
d) A 20-year-old patient with a broken leg

Answer: b) A 75-year-old patient with a history of falls and receiving opioids

, 4|Page


Rationale: Risk factors for falls include: age >65, history of falls, altered mental status,
medications (sedatives, opioids, diuretics), and impaired mobility.



10. The nurse is implementing fall prevention strategies. Which is an appropriate
intervention?
a) Keep the bed in the highest position
b) Keep all four side rails up
c) Place the call light within reach
d) Dim the lights at night

Answer: c) Place the call light within reach

Rationale: Placing the call light within reach promotes patient independence and safety.
Side rails should be used appropriately (not all four up). Bed in lowest position.



11. The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action
maintains sterile technique?
a) Opening the sterile kit on the bedside table
b) Using clean gloves for the procedure
c) Letting the catheter touch the patient’s thigh
d) Opening the sterile kit on the overbed table (clean, dry surface)

Answer: d) Opening the sterile kit on the overbed table (clean, dry surface)

Rationale: Sterile procedure requires a sterile field opened on a clean, dry surface. Sterile
gloves are required; the catheter should not touch non-sterile surfaces.



12. A patient is on contact precautions. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is
required?
a) Mask only
b) Gown and gloves
c) N95 respirator
d) Goggles only

Answer: b) Gown and gloves

Rationale: Contact Precautions require a gown and gloves for all patient interactions.

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