ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Retake
Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
Total Questions: 60 | Time: 90 min | Pass: 80%
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care & Fetal Development | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care & Labor Management | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Postpartum Care & Complications | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Newborn Assessment & Immediate Care | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Newborn Nutrition & Feeding | Q41 – Q50
Section 6 | High-Risk Conditions & Pharmacology | Q51 – Q60
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & FETAL DEVELOPMENT Q1 – Q10
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Question 1 of 60
A 32-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation is measured with a fundal height of 30
cm. Her previous measurement at 28 weeks was 29 cm. The nurse recognizes this
pattern as:
A. Consistent with fetal growth restriction
B. Suggestive of polyhydramnios
C. Appropriate for gestational age ✓ CORRECT
D. Indicative of macrosomia
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Fundal height typically corresponds closely to gestational age in weeks
between 20 and 36 weeks, with normal variation of 1-2 cm; a measurement of 30 cm at
32 weeks falls within normal limits. Fetal growth restriction in choice A would typically
show lagging fundal height measurements over serial visits rather than appropriate
correlation. Serial fundal height measurements are more informative than isolated
values because they reveal growth trajectories that single measurements cannot
capture.
Question 2 of 60
A 24-year-old pregnant patient at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and
vomiting. She has lost 3 kg and shows signs of dehydration. The nurse suspects
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A. Hypernatremia and metabolic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia and respiratory acidosis
C. Hyponatremia and metabolic acidosis
D. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes loss of gastric hydrochloric acid and
potassium, leading to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis from volume contraction.
Metabolic acidosis in choice C is incorrect because vomiting leads to acid loss and
alkalosis, not acid accumulation. Intravenous fluid replacement with thiamine and
potassium correction is essential before dextrose administration to prevent Wernicke
encephalopathy.
Question 3 of 60
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test
with a value of 155 mg/dL. Her next step is:
,A. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test ✓ CORRECT
B. Begin dietary modifications and glucose monitoring
C. Start insulin therapy immediately
D. Repeat the 1-hour test in two weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A screening glucose challenge test value exceeding 140 mg/dL requires
confirmation with a diagnostic 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test before diagnosing
gestational diabetes. Starting insulin in choice C is inappropriate without a confirmed
diagnosis because overtreatment carries risks of maternal hypoglycemia and fetal
compromise. The two-step screening approach prevents unnecessary labeling and
intervention in women who may have normal glucose metabolism.
Question 4 of 60
A 29-year-old Rh-negative woman at 28 weeks gestation has an antibody screen that is
negative for anti-D antibodies. What is the standard nursing intervention?
A. Schedule amniocentesis to assess fetal bilirubin
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin immediately ✓ CORRECT
C. Repeat the antibody screen at 36 weeks only
D. Prepare for intrauterine transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rh-negative women with a negative antibody screen routinely receive Rho(D)
immune globulin at 28 weeks gestation to prevent alloimmunization from fetomaternal
hemorrhage. Amniocentesis in choice A is reserved for sensitized pregnancies with
elevated antibody titers, not for routine prophylaxis. The 28-week dose is critical
because small asymptomatic fetomaternal bleeds can occur in the third trimester and
sensitize the mother before delivery.
Question 5 of 60
, A 22-year-old patient at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about substances that are
known teratogens. The nurse should include which substance in the teaching?
A. Acetaminophen at standard analgesic doses
B. Folic acid supplementation
C. Isotretinoin for acne treatment ✓ CORRECT
D. Iron supplementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isotretinoin is a potent retinoid and established human teratogen causing
severe craniofacial, cardiac, and central nervous system defects, requiring strict
pregnancy prevention programs during use. Acetaminophen in choice A is generally
considered safe in pregnancy when used appropriately, which makes it a tempting
distractor for students who confuse it with NSAIDs. Every woman of childbearing
potential prescribed isotretinoin must use two forms of contraception and have
negative pregnancy tests before starting therapy.
Question 6 of 60
A 31-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation reports mild cramping and vaginal spotting.
Ultrasound reveals a fetus with no cardiac activity and a crown-rump length consistent
with 14 weeks gestation. The nurse prepares the patient for:
A. Expectant management with weekly ultrasounds
B. Tocolytic therapy to stop contractions
C. Emergency cerclage placement
D. Dilation and evacuation or labor induction ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Missed abortion in the second trimester requires uterine evacuation through
dilation and evacuation or labor induction because retained products increase infection
and coagulopathy risks. Expectant management in choice A is sometimes used in
first-trimester missed abortion but becomes increasingly dangerous as gestational age
Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam-Style Questions | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
Total Questions: 60 | Time: 90 min | Pass: 80%
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care & Fetal Development | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Intrapartum Care & Labor Management | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Postpartum Care & Complications | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Newborn Assessment & Immediate Care | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Newborn Nutrition & Feeding | Q41 – Q50
Section 6 | High-Risk Conditions & Pharmacology | Q51 – Q60
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & FETAL DEVELOPMENT Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 60
A 32-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation is measured with a fundal height of 30
cm. Her previous measurement at 28 weeks was 29 cm. The nurse recognizes this
pattern as:
A. Consistent with fetal growth restriction
B. Suggestive of polyhydramnios
C. Appropriate for gestational age ✓ CORRECT
D. Indicative of macrosomia
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Fundal height typically corresponds closely to gestational age in weeks
between 20 and 36 weeks, with normal variation of 1-2 cm; a measurement of 30 cm at
32 weeks falls within normal limits. Fetal growth restriction in choice A would typically
show lagging fundal height measurements over serial visits rather than appropriate
correlation. Serial fundal height measurements are more informative than isolated
values because they reveal growth trajectories that single measurements cannot
capture.
Question 2 of 60
A 24-year-old pregnant patient at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and
vomiting. She has lost 3 kg and shows signs of dehydration. The nurse suspects
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A. Hypernatremia and metabolic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia and respiratory acidosis
C. Hyponatremia and metabolic acidosis
D. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes loss of gastric hydrochloric acid and
potassium, leading to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis from volume contraction.
Metabolic acidosis in choice C is incorrect because vomiting leads to acid loss and
alkalosis, not acid accumulation. Intravenous fluid replacement with thiamine and
potassium correction is essential before dextrose administration to prevent Wernicke
encephalopathy.
Question 3 of 60
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test
with a value of 155 mg/dL. Her next step is:
,A. Schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test ✓ CORRECT
B. Begin dietary modifications and glucose monitoring
C. Start insulin therapy immediately
D. Repeat the 1-hour test in two weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A screening glucose challenge test value exceeding 140 mg/dL requires
confirmation with a diagnostic 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test before diagnosing
gestational diabetes. Starting insulin in choice C is inappropriate without a confirmed
diagnosis because overtreatment carries risks of maternal hypoglycemia and fetal
compromise. The two-step screening approach prevents unnecessary labeling and
intervention in women who may have normal glucose metabolism.
Question 4 of 60
A 29-year-old Rh-negative woman at 28 weeks gestation has an antibody screen that is
negative for anti-D antibodies. What is the standard nursing intervention?
A. Schedule amniocentesis to assess fetal bilirubin
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin immediately ✓ CORRECT
C. Repeat the antibody screen at 36 weeks only
D. Prepare for intrauterine transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rh-negative women with a negative antibody screen routinely receive Rho(D)
immune globulin at 28 weeks gestation to prevent alloimmunization from fetomaternal
hemorrhage. Amniocentesis in choice A is reserved for sensitized pregnancies with
elevated antibody titers, not for routine prophylaxis. The 28-week dose is critical
because small asymptomatic fetomaternal bleeds can occur in the third trimester and
sensitize the mother before delivery.
Question 5 of 60
, A 22-year-old patient at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about substances that are
known teratogens. The nurse should include which substance in the teaching?
A. Acetaminophen at standard analgesic doses
B. Folic acid supplementation
C. Isotretinoin for acne treatment ✓ CORRECT
D. Iron supplementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isotretinoin is a potent retinoid and established human teratogen causing
severe craniofacial, cardiac, and central nervous system defects, requiring strict
pregnancy prevention programs during use. Acetaminophen in choice A is generally
considered safe in pregnancy when used appropriately, which makes it a tempting
distractor for students who confuse it with NSAIDs. Every woman of childbearing
potential prescribed isotretinoin must use two forms of contraception and have
negative pregnancy tests before starting therapy.
Question 6 of 60
A 31-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation reports mild cramping and vaginal spotting.
Ultrasound reveals a fetus with no cardiac activity and a crown-rump length consistent
with 14 weeks gestation. The nurse prepares the patient for:
A. Expectant management with weekly ultrasounds
B. Tocolytic therapy to stop contractions
C. Emergency cerclage placement
D. Dilation and evacuation or labor induction ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Missed abortion in the second trimester requires uterine evacuation through
dilation and evacuation or labor induction because retained products increase infection
and coagulopathy risks. Expectant management in choice A is sometimes used in
first-trimester missed abortion but becomes increasingly dangerous as gestational age
