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NUR 213 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 1 2026 | Physical Examination Actual Exam | Latest Update 2026/2027 | Verified Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass NUR 213 Health Assessment & Physical Examination Exam 1 on your first attempt with this 2026 actual exam guide featuring the latest 2026/2027 update. This A+ Graded resource contains actual exam questions with verified answers covering all key health assessment domains including comprehensive health history (biographical data, chief complaint, history of present illness (OLDCARTS/OPQRST), past medical history, family history, social history, review of systems, functional assessment), physical examination techniques (inspection, palpation (light, deep, bimanual, discriminatory), percussion (direct, indirect, blunt), auscultation (diaphragm and bell of stethoscope)), general survey and vital signs (overall appearance, body habitus, hygiene, mood and affect, speech, temperature (oral, rectal, axillary, tympanic), pulse (rate, rhythm, amplitude, contour), respiration (rate, rhythm, depth, effort), blood pressure (techniques, hypertension/hypotension, orthostatic), oxygen saturation, pain assessment), skin, hair, and nail assessment (skin color, temperature, texture, turgor, lesions (primary and secondary), vascular changes, hair distribution, nail angle (clubbing), capillary refill), head and neck assessment (head shape/symmetry, facial features, temporomandibular joint, neck range of motion, lymph nodes (cervical, supraclavicular, axillary), thyroid gland assessment, carotid artery assessment (bruits)), eye assessment (visual acuity (Snellen chart, Rosenbaum), visual fields (confrontation), extraocular movements (six cardinal gazes, nystagmus, strabismus), pupillary assessment (PERRLA, direct/consensual response), fundoscopic examination (optic disc, vessels, macula)), ear assessment (external ear inspection, otoscopic examination (canal, tympanic membrane landmarks, cone of light), hearing tests (whisper test, Rinne, Weber), and balance assessment (Romberg test)), nose, mouth, and throat assessment (nasal inspection, sinuses palpation/transillumination, lips, teeth, gums, tongue, palate (cleft palate), tonsils, pharynx, gag reflex), and cranial nerve assessment (CN I-XII screening). Each answer includes clear clinical rationales to reinforce physical assessment skills. Perfect for nursing students beginning their health assessment course. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently prepare for your NUR 213 Exam 1. Download your complete NUR 213 Health Assessment Exam 1 guide instantly!

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NUR 213 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 1 2026 | Physical
Examination Actual Exam | Latest Update 2026/2027 | Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded


Section 1: Health History & Interviewing Techniques (Q1-12)

Q1. A 58-year-old client presents with chest pain. Using the OLDCARTS mnemonic, the
nurse asks about the onset, location, duration, characteristics, aggravating factors,
relieving factors, timing, and severity. Which additional component is essential to
complete the history of present illness?
A. Family history of coronary artery disease
B. Associated symptoms (PQRSTU - provocative/palliative, quality, region/radiation,
severity, timing, understanding)
C. Social history of smoking
D. Review of systems for gastrointestinal symptoms

Correct Answer: B. Associated symptoms (PQRSTU - provocative/palliative, quality,
region/radiation, severity, timing, understanding) [CORRECT]
Rationale: PQRSTU complements OLDCARTS by capturing the quality, radiation, and
patient's understanding of the symptom; it is part of the history of present illness.
Family history, social history, and ROS are separate components of the complete health
history.

Q2. A nurse is conducting a social history and asks the client: "Have you ever felt you
should cut down on your drinking? Have people annoyed you by criticizing your
drinking? Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking? Have you ever had a drink
first thing in the morning (eye-opener)?" Which screening tool is the nurse using?
A. AUDIT-C
B. CAGE questionnaire
C. PHQ-9
D. GAD-7

Correct Answer: B. CAGE questionnaire [CORRECT]

,Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) is a
validated 4-question screening tool for alcohol use disorder; two or more positive
responses suggest problematic drinking. AUDIT-C is a 3-question alcohol screen, PHQ-9
screens for depression, and GAD-7 screens for anxiety.

Q3. During a health history, the nurse asks the client to describe their typical daily diet,
exercise routine, occupation, and living situation. Which component of the health history
is being assessed?
A. Past medical history
B. Social history
C. Family history
D. Review of systems

Correct Answer: B. Social history [CORRECT]
Rationale: Social history includes diet, exercise, occupation, living situation,
tobacco/alcohol/substance use, and environmental exposures; it provides context for
health risks and patient support systems. Past medical history covers illnesses and
surgeries, family history covers hereditary conditions, and ROS is a symptom review.

Q4. A nurse is creating a genogram for a client whose father had colon cancer at age 52
and paternal grandfather had colon cancer at age 48. Which type of family history
documentation is being used, and what is the significance?
A. Pedigree; indicates autosomal recessive inheritance pattern
B. Genogram; indicates possible hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch
syndrome) requiring early screening
C. Ecomap; indicates environmental risk factors only
D. Family tree; no clinical significance for the client

Correct Answer: B. Genogram; indicates possible hereditary non-polyposis colorectal
cancer (Lynch syndrome) requiring early screening [CORRECT]
Rationale: A genogram graphically documents family medical history across
generations; two first-degree relatives with early-onset colon cancer suggests Lynch
syndrome, indicating the client needs colonoscopy starting at age 40 or 10 years before

,the youngest case. A pedigree is similar but more genetic-focused, and ecomaps
assess social relationships.

Q5. A 72-year-old client lives alone and reports difficulty with meal preparation,
medication management, and transportation. The nurse assesses the client's ability to
perform these activities. Which assessment framework is most appropriate?
A. Activities of daily living (ADLs) only
B. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
C. Mini-Mental State Examination only
D. Glasgow Coma Scale

Correct Answer: B. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) [CORRECT]
Rationale: IADLs include complex tasks such as meal preparation, medication
management, transportation, finances, and housekeeping; ADLs cover basic self-care
(bathing, dressing, toileting). The client's difficulties are IADL-specific, and cognitive
screens do not assess functional independence.

Q6. During the review of systems (ROS), the nurse systematically asks about symptoms
in each body system. Which statement best describes the purpose of the ROS?
A. To document the client's family history of genetic disorders
B. To identify symptoms the client may not have volunteered that could be related to the
presenting problem or undiagnosed conditions
C. To assess the client's mental status and cognitive function
D. To evaluate the client's occupational hazards only

Correct Answer: B. To identify symptoms the client may not have volunteered that could
be related to the presenting problem or undiagnosed conditions [CORRECT]
Rationale: The ROS is a systematic head-to-toe inquiry designed to uncover symptoms
the client may not have mentioned, providing clues to underlying conditions and
ensuring comprehensive assessment. It does not replace family history, mental status
exam, or social history.

Q7. A nurse interviews a client who provides excessive, irrelevant details and wanders
from topic to topic when answering questions. Which term describes this thought
process?

, A. Tangentiality
B. Circumstantiality
C. Flight of ideas
D. Loose associations

Correct Answer: B. Circumstantiality [CORRECT]
Rationale: Circumstantiality is speech that is delayed in reaching the point due to
excessive unnecessary detail, but eventually returns to the topic; tangentiality never
returns to the point, flight of ideas is rapid topic shifts with connections, and loose
associations have no logical connection between ideas.

Q8. A client reports a chief complaint of "shortness of breath for 3 days." Which is the
most appropriate follow-up question using the OLDCARTS framework to assess
duration and severity?
A. "Do you have a family history of asthma?"
B. "When did the shortness of breath start, how long does each episode last, and on a
scale of 0-10, how severe is it?"
C. "Have you had any recent surgeries?"
D. "What is your typical diet?"

Correct Answer: B. "When did the shortness of breath start, how long does each episode
last, and on a scale of 0-10, how severe is it?" [CORRECT]
Rationale: OLDCARTS assesses Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating
factors, Relieving factors, Timing, and Severity; the follow-up question directly
addresses onset, duration, and severity. Family history, surgeries, and diet are unrelated
to characterizing the present symptom.

Q9. A nurse is interviewing a client who appears anxious and provides minimal
responses. Which interviewing technique is most appropriate to encourage the client to
share more information?
A. Ask closed-ended questions exclusively to save time
B. Use open-ended questions, silence, and therapeutic communication techniques such
as reflection and clarification
C. Interrupt the client to redirect to more important topics
D. Complete the interview quickly to reduce the client's anxiety

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