1|Page
# TEST BANK: ATI LEARNING SYSTEM ADULT MED-
SURG CRITICAL CARE## QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
UPDATED FOR 2026### HIGH-YIELD CONTENT |
GRADED A+ | FIRST TIME PASS
## Table of Contents
1. **Cardiovascular Critical Care** (25 questions)
2. **Respiratory Critical Care** (25 questions)
3. **Neurologic Critical Care** (20 questions)
4. **Renal & Fluid/Electrolyte Critical Care** (15 questions)
5. **Endocrine Critical Care** (15 questions)
6. **Gastrointestinal & Hepatic Critical Care** (15 questions)
7. **Hematologic & Oncologic Emergencies** (10 questions)
8. **Multisystem & Shock States** (20 questions)
9. **Trauma & Burns** (15 questions)
10. **Ethical & Legal Issues in Critical Care** (10 questions)
11. **Final Comprehensive Review** (20 questions)
---
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## Section 1: Cardiovascular Critical Care (25 Questions)
**1.** A client with acute myocardial infarction (MI) develops cardiogenic shock.
Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Hypotension, tachycardia, cool clammy skin, decreased urine output
B. Hypertension, bradycardia, warm dry skin
C. Fever, chills, hypotension (septic shock)
D. Tachycardia, bounding pulses, warm skin (distributive)
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Cardiogenic shock results from pump failure (decreased
contractility). Signs include hypotension (SBP <90), tachycardia, cool clammy
extremities, decreased urine output, and elevated filling pressures (JVD, crackles).
---
**2.** A client with heart failure (HF) has a pulmonary artery catheter. The
pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 28 mmHg (normal 4-12). This
indicates:
A. Left ventricular failure (elevated filling pressures)
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Hypovolemia
D. Normal cardiac function
**Correct Answer: A**
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*Rationale:* PAWP (or PCWP) reflects left atrial pressure. Elevated PAWP (>18)
indicates left ventricular failure or volume overload.
---
**3.** A client with acute decompensated heart failure has crackles, dyspnea, and
oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse should anticipate which
intervention first?
A. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV
B. Place client in high Fowler's position and administer oxygen
C. Administer digoxin
D. Prepare for intubation
**Correct Answer: B**
*Rationale:* High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves ventilation.
Oxygen is priority. Furosemide is administered after positioning and oxygen.
---
**4.** A client with acute MI is receiving alteplase (tPA). The nurse should
monitor most closely for:
A. Bleeding (intracranial hemorrhage)
B. Hypotension
C. Arrhythmias
, 4|Page
D. Nausea
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Thrombolytics increase bleeding risk, especially intracranial
hemorrhage. Monitor for neurologic changes (headache, confusion, vomiting).
---
**5.** A client with a new onset of atrial fibrillation (AF) with rapid ventricular
response has a heart rate of 150 bpm and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. The
nurse should prepare for:
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Defibrillation
C. Oral amiodarone
D. Vagal maneuvers
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Unstable AF (hypotension, chest pain, altered mental status) requires
immediate synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is for pulseless rhythms.
---
# TEST BANK: ATI LEARNING SYSTEM ADULT MED-
SURG CRITICAL CARE## QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
UPDATED FOR 2026### HIGH-YIELD CONTENT |
GRADED A+ | FIRST TIME PASS
## Table of Contents
1. **Cardiovascular Critical Care** (25 questions)
2. **Respiratory Critical Care** (25 questions)
3. **Neurologic Critical Care** (20 questions)
4. **Renal & Fluid/Electrolyte Critical Care** (15 questions)
5. **Endocrine Critical Care** (15 questions)
6. **Gastrointestinal & Hepatic Critical Care** (15 questions)
7. **Hematologic & Oncologic Emergencies** (10 questions)
8. **Multisystem & Shock States** (20 questions)
9. **Trauma & Burns** (15 questions)
10. **Ethical & Legal Issues in Critical Care** (10 questions)
11. **Final Comprehensive Review** (20 questions)
---
,2|Page
## Section 1: Cardiovascular Critical Care (25 Questions)
**1.** A client with acute myocardial infarction (MI) develops cardiogenic shock.
Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Hypotension, tachycardia, cool clammy skin, decreased urine output
B. Hypertension, bradycardia, warm dry skin
C. Fever, chills, hypotension (septic shock)
D. Tachycardia, bounding pulses, warm skin (distributive)
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Cardiogenic shock results from pump failure (decreased
contractility). Signs include hypotension (SBP <90), tachycardia, cool clammy
extremities, decreased urine output, and elevated filling pressures (JVD, crackles).
---
**2.** A client with heart failure (HF) has a pulmonary artery catheter. The
pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 28 mmHg (normal 4-12). This
indicates:
A. Left ventricular failure (elevated filling pressures)
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Hypovolemia
D. Normal cardiac function
**Correct Answer: A**
,3|Page
*Rationale:* PAWP (or PCWP) reflects left atrial pressure. Elevated PAWP (>18)
indicates left ventricular failure or volume overload.
---
**3.** A client with acute decompensated heart failure has crackles, dyspnea, and
oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse should anticipate which
intervention first?
A. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV
B. Place client in high Fowler's position and administer oxygen
C. Administer digoxin
D. Prepare for intubation
**Correct Answer: B**
*Rationale:* High Fowler's position reduces preload and improves ventilation.
Oxygen is priority. Furosemide is administered after positioning and oxygen.
---
**4.** A client with acute MI is receiving alteplase (tPA). The nurse should
monitor most closely for:
A. Bleeding (intracranial hemorrhage)
B. Hypotension
C. Arrhythmias
, 4|Page
D. Nausea
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Thrombolytics increase bleeding risk, especially intracranial
hemorrhage. Monitor for neurologic changes (headache, confusion, vomiting).
---
**5.** A client with a new onset of atrial fibrillation (AF) with rapid ventricular
response has a heart rate of 150 bpm and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. The
nurse should prepare for:
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Defibrillation
C. Oral amiodarone
D. Vagal maneuvers
**Correct Answer: A**
*Rationale:* Unstable AF (hypotension, chest pain, altered mental status) requires
immediate synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is for pulseless rhythms.
---
