Exam NR-565 Advanced Pharmacology
Fundamentals | Midterm and Finals Proctored Exam
Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+ | Latest Verified Edition 2026
QUESTION 1
Which condition results from an autoimmune destruction of
acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
• A. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
• B. Myasthenia gravis
• C. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies targeting
postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors, leading to muscle weakness.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following must be included on every prescription for it to
be valid and processable by the pharmacy?
• A. Patient's date of birth only
• B. Prescriber name and contact information
• C. Diagnosis code
• D. Patient's address
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prescriber name and contact information must be included
on every prescription (including electronic ones) for it to be valid and
processable by the pharmacy. This ensures accountability and allows the
pharmacist to contact the prescriber if needed.
QUESTION 3
In the LIFE trial, losartan was associated with a decrease in stroke risk
compared to atenolol in hypertensive adults with left ventricular
hypertrophy. What was the approximate decrease?
• A. 10%
• B. 25%
• C. 40%
• D. 50%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Losartan was associated with a 25% decrease in stroke risk
compared to atenolol in adults aged 55–80 years with hypertension and
left ventricular hypertrophy (LIFE trial). This is a well-established
clinical finding.
QUESTION 4
A noncompetitive antagonist differs from a competitive antagonist
because it reduces which of the following?
• A. Potency of the agonist
• B. Maximal response (efficacy) of the agonist
• C. Affinity of the agonist
• D. Half-life of the agonist
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Noncompetitive antagonists bind to a site different from the
agonist (or irreversibly), reducing the maximal response (efficacy) of the
agonist. This effect cannot be overcome by increasing agonist
concentration.
QUESTION 5
A patient with type 2 diabetes and heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction (HFrEF) is being started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which of the
following is preferred?
• A. Sitagliptin
• B. Empagliflozin
• C. Pioglitazone
• D. Glimepiride
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Empagliflozin (and dapagliflozin) are SGLT2 inhibitors
shown to reduce cardiovascular death and hospitalizations for heart
failure in patients with HFrEF regardless of diabetes status.
QUESTION 6
Which medication is associated with drug-induced lupus erythematosus?
• A. Metformin
• B. Hydralazine
• C. Lisinopril
• D. Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydralazine and procainamide are classic causes of drug-
, induced lupus erythematosus. Symptoms include arthralgias, myalgias,
and serositis.
QUESTION 7
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5 without bleeding. What is the
appropriate management?
• A. Hold warfarin and give vitamin K 10 mg orally
• B. Hold warfarin and give fresh frozen plasma
• C. Hold warfarin and recheck INR in 1-2 days
• D. Continue warfarin at same dose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For an INR of 4.5 without bleeding, hold warfarin and
recheck INR in 1-2 days. Vitamin K is typically reserved for INR >10 or
with bleeding.
QUESTION 8
Which antibiotic is associated with a disulfiram-like reaction when
combined with alcohol?
• A. Azithromycin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metronidazole (and cefotetan) inhibit aldehyde
dehydrogenase, causing nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache if
alcohol is consumed within 72 hours.