Apea predictor exam LATEST 2025/
2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium of
6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
C. Prepare the patient for hemodialysis
D. Restrict dietary potassium
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Hyperkalemia (K⁺ > 5.5) can cause life-
threatening dysrhythmias; cardiac monitoring is the priority.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV furosemide. Which
assessment finding requires immediate action?
A. Blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg
B. Urine output 300 mL in 2 hours
C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L
Correct ,,,answer,,,: C – Tinnitus and hearing loss indicate ototoxicity, a
serious adverse effect of loop diuretics.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and hungry.
The blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What should the nurse administer first?
A. 4 oz orange juice
B. 1 mg glucagon IM
C. 50% dextrose IV push
D. 8 oz skim milk
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, oral
fast-acting carbohydrate (15 g) is first-line.
4. Which ECG finding is most consistent with hypokalemia?
A. Tall peaked T waves
B. Prominent U wave
C. Wide QRS complex
D. ST-segment elevation
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Hypokalemia causes a U wave, flattened T wave,
and possible dysrhythmias.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about limiting sodium.
Which food choice indicates correct understanding?
A. Canned vegetable soup
B. Grilled chicken breast with herbs
C. Processed cheese sandwich
D. Pickles and olives
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Fresh grilled chicken with herbs is low in sodium;
processed/canned/pickled foods are high sodium.
6. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a sudden drop in SpO₂ to 85%
and absent breath sounds on the right side. What is the priority action?
A. Increase FiO₂ to 100%
B. Call a rapid response
,C. Prepare for chest tube insertion
D. Position patient with right side up
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – Suspected tension pneumothorax; immediate
100% FiO₂ and call for help, but increasing oxygen is first.
7. Which laboratory value indicates that warfarin is therapeutic?
A. aPTT 1.5–2.5 times control
B. INR 2.0–3.0
C. Platelets 150,000–400,000
D. PT 50 seconds
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Therapeutic INR for most indications (e.g., atrial
fibrillation, DVT) is 2.0–3.0.
8. A patient with cirrhosis develops asterixis. This finding is associated
with:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hepatic encephalopathy
C. Esophageal varices
D. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Asterixis (“liver flap”) is a sign of hepatic
encephalopathy from ammonia accumulation.
9. After a thyroidectomy, the patient complains of tingling around the
mouth and fingers. Which complication is most likely?
A. Thyroid storm
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Laryngeal nerve damage
, Correct ,,,answer,,,: C – Post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia from
accidental parathyroid removal causes paresthesia, Chvostek/Trousseau
signs.
10. A nurse notes a new onset of confusion in an older adult patient.
Before notifying the provider, what should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood glucose and oxygen saturation
B. Pupillary response to light
C. Grip strength bilaterally
D. Recent visitors
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – Hypoglycemia and hypoxemia are common,
reversible causes of acute confusion in older adults.
11. A patient with major depressive disorder started fluoxetine 2 weeks
ago. Today the patient’s mood is unchanged but energy is improved. What
is the greatest risk?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Suicide
C. Mania
D. Akathisia
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Increased energy before mood lifts can enable
suicidal acts; reassess safety.
12. Which action best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A. Daily sedation holiday
B. Semirecumbent position (head of bed 30–45°)
C. Oral care with chlorhexidine
D. Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Semirecumbent position reduces aspiration; all
are VAP bundles, but positioning is key.
2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium of
6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
C. Prepare the patient for hemodialysis
D. Restrict dietary potassium
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Hyperkalemia (K⁺ > 5.5) can cause life-
threatening dysrhythmias; cardiac monitoring is the priority.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV furosemide. Which
assessment finding requires immediate action?
A. Blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg
B. Urine output 300 mL in 2 hours
C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Serum potassium 3.8 mEq/L
Correct ,,,answer,,,: C – Tinnitus and hearing loss indicate ototoxicity, a
serious adverse effect of loop diuretics.
,3. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and hungry.
The blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What should the nurse administer first?
A. 4 oz orange juice
B. 1 mg glucagon IM
C. 50% dextrose IV push
D. 8 oz skim milk
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, oral
fast-acting carbohydrate (15 g) is first-line.
4. Which ECG finding is most consistent with hypokalemia?
A. Tall peaked T waves
B. Prominent U wave
C. Wide QRS complex
D. ST-segment elevation
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Hypokalemia causes a U wave, flattened T wave,
and possible dysrhythmias.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about limiting sodium.
Which food choice indicates correct understanding?
A. Canned vegetable soup
B. Grilled chicken breast with herbs
C. Processed cheese sandwich
D. Pickles and olives
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Fresh grilled chicken with herbs is low in sodium;
processed/canned/pickled foods are high sodium.
6. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a sudden drop in SpO₂ to 85%
and absent breath sounds on the right side. What is the priority action?
A. Increase FiO₂ to 100%
B. Call a rapid response
,C. Prepare for chest tube insertion
D. Position patient with right side up
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – Suspected tension pneumothorax; immediate
100% FiO₂ and call for help, but increasing oxygen is first.
7. Which laboratory value indicates that warfarin is therapeutic?
A. aPTT 1.5–2.5 times control
B. INR 2.0–3.0
C. Platelets 150,000–400,000
D. PT 50 seconds
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Therapeutic INR for most indications (e.g., atrial
fibrillation, DVT) is 2.0–3.0.
8. A patient with cirrhosis develops asterixis. This finding is associated
with:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hepatic encephalopathy
C. Esophageal varices
D. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Asterixis (“liver flap”) is a sign of hepatic
encephalopathy from ammonia accumulation.
9. After a thyroidectomy, the patient complains of tingling around the
mouth and fingers. Which complication is most likely?
A. Thyroid storm
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Laryngeal nerve damage
, Correct ,,,answer,,,: C – Post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia from
accidental parathyroid removal causes paresthesia, Chvostek/Trousseau
signs.
10. A nurse notes a new onset of confusion in an older adult patient.
Before notifying the provider, what should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood glucose and oxygen saturation
B. Pupillary response to light
C. Grip strength bilaterally
D. Recent visitors
Correct ,,,answer,,,: A – Hypoglycemia and hypoxemia are common,
reversible causes of acute confusion in older adults.
11. A patient with major depressive disorder started fluoxetine 2 weeks
ago. Today the patient’s mood is unchanged but energy is improved. What
is the greatest risk?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Suicide
C. Mania
D. Akathisia
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Increased energy before mood lifts can enable
suicidal acts; reassess safety.
12. Which action best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A. Daily sedation holiday
B. Semirecumbent position (head of bed 30–45°)
C. Oral care with chlorhexidine
D. Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis
Correct ,,,answer,,,: B – Semirecumbent position reduces aspiration; all
are VAP bundles, but positioning is key.
