1
NURS 5434 FAMILY III FINAL AND PRACTICE EXAM (UTA)
NEWEST 2025/ 2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+| NURS 5434 FNP III FINAL EXAM
PREP (BRAND NEW!!)
Section 1: Women's Health & Pregnancy (Questions 1–50)
1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In contrast,
placental abruption presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness,
and hypertonicity.
2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has a fundal height of 24 cm. What is the
most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the patient that this is normal
B. Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
C. Schedule a non-stress test
D. Admit for observation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal gestational
age in weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more than 3 cm
pg. 1
,2
warrants ultrasound evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating.
3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an amniocentesis that reveals a
karyotype of 47,XX,+21. What is the diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
C. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 47,XX,+21 indicates an extra chromosome 21, which is trisomy 21
(Down syndrome). Turner syndrome is 45,XO. Trisomy 18 is 47,XX,+18. Klinefelter
syndrome is 47,XXY.
4. A 24-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation complains of severe nausea
and vomiting, weight loss of 8 pounds, and ketonuria. What is the diagnosis?
A. Morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Cholecystitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting in
pregnancy with weight loss (>5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration,
ketonuria, and electrolyte abnormalities. It is more severe than typical morning
sickness and may require hospitalization.
5. A 30-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular
contractions every 3 minutes. On exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80%
effaced. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate vaginal delivery
pg. 2
,3
B. Turn the patient to the left lateral position and administer oxygen
C. Increase oxytocin infusion
D. Perform an amniotomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first
action is to improve uterine blood flow by turning the patient to the left lateral
position, administering oxygen, and discontinuing or reducing oxytocin.
6. A 32-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 150/95
mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (BP ≥140/90) and
proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. When it occurs before 20 weeks, it may be
associated with molar pregnancy or pre-existing renal disease. This presentation
at 12 weeks is unusual for typical preeclampsia, but the question likely expects
preeclampsia. Chronic hypertension would not have proteinuria. Gestational
hypertension lacks proteinuria.
7. A 26-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation has a positive Group B
Streptococcus (GBS) culture. What is the appropriate management during
labor?
A. No antibiotics needed
B. Administer ampicillin or penicillin G IV at least 4 hours before delivery
C. Administer oral antibiotics at the onset of labor
D. Schedule a cesarean section
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP)
pg. 3
, 4
with IV penicillin or ampicillin for GBS-positive women at least 4 hours before
delivery to prevent early-onset neonatal GBS sepsis.
8. A postpartum patient 24 hours after vaginal delivery has a temperature of
101.5°F (38.6°C), uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Mastitis
B. Endometritis
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Wound infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, typically presenting
with fever, uterine tenderness, and malodorous lochia in the postpartum period.
Risk factors include cesarean delivery, prolonged rupture of membranes, and
multiple vaginal exams.
9. A 22-year-old woman requests emergency contraception after unprotected
intercourse 48 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?
A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
B. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg single dose
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills for 21 days
D. Mifepristone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levonorgestrel emergency contraception is most effective when taken
within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is available over-the-counter.
Ulipristal acetate (Ella) is effective up to 120 hours.
10. A 45-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular
menses for the past 6 months. FSH is elevated. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Primary ovarian insufficiency
pg. 4
NURS 5434 FAMILY III FINAL AND PRACTICE EXAM (UTA)
NEWEST 2025/ 2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+| NURS 5434 FNP III FINAL EXAM
PREP (BRAND NEW!!)
Section 1: Women's Health & Pregnancy (Questions 1–50)
1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In contrast,
placental abruption presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness,
and hypertonicity.
2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has a fundal height of 24 cm. What is the
most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the patient that this is normal
B. Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
C. Schedule a non-stress test
D. Admit for observation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal gestational
age in weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more than 3 cm
pg. 1
,2
warrants ultrasound evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating.
3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an amniocentesis that reveals a
karyotype of 47,XX,+21. What is the diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
C. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 47,XX,+21 indicates an extra chromosome 21, which is trisomy 21
(Down syndrome). Turner syndrome is 45,XO. Trisomy 18 is 47,XX,+18. Klinefelter
syndrome is 47,XXY.
4. A 24-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation complains of severe nausea
and vomiting, weight loss of 8 pounds, and ketonuria. What is the diagnosis?
A. Morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Cholecystitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting in
pregnancy with weight loss (>5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration,
ketonuria, and electrolyte abnormalities. It is more severe than typical morning
sickness and may require hospitalization.
5. A 30-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular
contractions every 3 minutes. On exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80%
effaced. The fetal heart rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate vaginal delivery
pg. 2
,3
B. Turn the patient to the left lateral position and administer oxygen
C. Increase oxytocin infusion
D. Perform an amniotomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first
action is to improve uterine blood flow by turning the patient to the left lateral
position, administering oxygen, and discontinuing or reducing oxytocin.
6. A 32-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 150/95
mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (BP ≥140/90) and
proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. When it occurs before 20 weeks, it may be
associated with molar pregnancy or pre-existing renal disease. This presentation
at 12 weeks is unusual for typical preeclampsia, but the question likely expects
preeclampsia. Chronic hypertension would not have proteinuria. Gestational
hypertension lacks proteinuria.
7. A 26-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation has a positive Group B
Streptococcus (GBS) culture. What is the appropriate management during
labor?
A. No antibiotics needed
B. Administer ampicillin or penicillin G IV at least 4 hours before delivery
C. Administer oral antibiotics at the onset of labor
D. Schedule a cesarean section
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP)
pg. 3
, 4
with IV penicillin or ampicillin for GBS-positive women at least 4 hours before
delivery to prevent early-onset neonatal GBS sepsis.
8. A postpartum patient 24 hours after vaginal delivery has a temperature of
101.5°F (38.6°C), uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Mastitis
B. Endometritis
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Wound infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, typically presenting
with fever, uterine tenderness, and malodorous lochia in the postpartum period.
Risk factors include cesarean delivery, prolonged rupture of membranes, and
multiple vaginal exams.
9. A 22-year-old woman requests emergency contraception after unprotected
intercourse 48 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?
A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
B. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg single dose
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills for 21 days
D. Mifepristone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levonorgestrel emergency contraception is most effective when taken
within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is available over-the-counter.
Ulipristal acetate (Ella) is effective up to 120 hours.
10. A 45-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular
menses for the past 6 months. FSH is elevated. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Primary ovarian insufficiency
pg. 4
