ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2025–2026 | Verified Test Bank
with 150 Multiple-Choice Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed
Nursing Rationales for Safe, Effective, and Evidence-Based Clinical
Judgment
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control
(Questions 1–20)
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Which technique requires sterile gloves?
A) Donning clean gloves for perineal cleaning
B) Handling the lubricated catheter tip
C) Opening the sterile kit outer wrapper
D) Removing the old catheter
Answer: B
Rationale: The catheter tip enters the urethra (sterile body cavity).
Sterile gloves are required to maintain asepsis. Clean gloves (A) are
for perineal cleaning. Outer wrapper (C) is not sterile. Removing old
catheter (D) uses clean gloves.
2. Which client requires airborne precautions?
A) Clostridioides difficile
B) Influenza
C) Pulmonary tuberculosis
D) MRSA wound infection
,Answer: C
Rationale: TB spreads via droplet nuclei that remain airborne.
Requires N95 mask, negative pressure room. C. diff (A) = contact.
Influenza (B) = droplet. MRSA (D) = contact.
3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a trash can. What is the first
action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Extinguish the fire
C) Evacuate the client
D) Close the door
Answer: C
Rationale: RACE: Rescue (move client from danger first), Alarm,
Contain, Extinguish. Evacuating the client (C) is the priority.
4. A client on fall precautions needs to void. What should the
nurse do?
A) Place the bedpan and leave
B) Have the client use a urinal independently
C) Assist the client to the bathroom with a gait belt
D) Restrict fluids to reduce need to void
Answer: C
Rationale: Fall risk clients need direct assistance to bathroom. Gait
belt provides safety. Leaving (A) or independent use (B) increases
fall risk. Fluid restriction (D) is harmful.
5. A client with active measles requires which precautions?
A) Standard only
B) Droplet
,C) Airborne
D) Contact
Answer: C
Rationale: Measles (rubeola) is airborne. Also varicella (chickenpox)
and disseminated zoster require airborne precautions.
6. A nurse is applying restraints. Which action is correct?
A) Tie restraints to the bed rail
B) Apply for 4 hours without reassessment
C) Remove restraint every 2 hours for ROM
D) Use knot that tightens with pulling
Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints must be removed every 2 hours for skin check,
ROM, toileting. Tie to bed frame (not rail) (A). Reassess q1-2h (B).
Use quick-release knot (D).
7. What is the correct order for removing PPE?
A) Gloves → gown → goggles → mask
B) Gown → gloves → mask → goggles
C) Mask → goggles → gloves → gown
D) Goggles → mask → gown → gloves
Answer: A
Rationale: Remove most contaminated (gloves) first, then gown (tie
in back), then goggles/face shield, then mask (last, by straps).
Prevents contamination of face.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. What is
the priority in the first 24 hours?
A) Clean inner cannula daily
, B) Monitor for subcutaneous emphysema
C) Change ties every shift
D) Suction every 4 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema (air leaking into tissues) can
indicate improper placement or pneumothorax—immediate threat.
Daily cleaning (A) and tie changes (C) are routine but not first-day
priority.
9. A client has a new tracheostomy. Which humidification method
is most appropriate?
A) Cool mist humidifier in the room
B) Heated humidification via trach mask or ventilator
C) Saline nebulizer only
D) No humidification needed
Answer: B
Rationale: Tracheostomy bypasses upper airway humidification;
heated humidity prevents mucus plugs, crusting.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a central line. Which action
violates sterile technique?
A) Changing the transparent dressing every 7 days
B) Using sterile gloves to change the cap
C) Allowing the line to hang below the heart
D) Cleaning the hub with alcohol for 15 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: Central line should not hang below heart level (increases
risk of air embolism and backflow). Dressing change q7 days (A) is
correct. Hub cleaning (D) requires 5-15 seconds.
with 150 Multiple-Choice Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed
Nursing Rationales for Safe, Effective, and Evidence-Based Clinical
Judgment
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control
(Questions 1–20)
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Which technique requires sterile gloves?
A) Donning clean gloves for perineal cleaning
B) Handling the lubricated catheter tip
C) Opening the sterile kit outer wrapper
D) Removing the old catheter
Answer: B
Rationale: The catheter tip enters the urethra (sterile body cavity).
Sterile gloves are required to maintain asepsis. Clean gloves (A) are
for perineal cleaning. Outer wrapper (C) is not sterile. Removing old
catheter (D) uses clean gloves.
2. Which client requires airborne precautions?
A) Clostridioides difficile
B) Influenza
C) Pulmonary tuberculosis
D) MRSA wound infection
,Answer: C
Rationale: TB spreads via droplet nuclei that remain airborne.
Requires N95 mask, negative pressure room. C. diff (A) = contact.
Influenza (B) = droplet. MRSA (D) = contact.
3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a trash can. What is the first
action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Extinguish the fire
C) Evacuate the client
D) Close the door
Answer: C
Rationale: RACE: Rescue (move client from danger first), Alarm,
Contain, Extinguish. Evacuating the client (C) is the priority.
4. A client on fall precautions needs to void. What should the
nurse do?
A) Place the bedpan and leave
B) Have the client use a urinal independently
C) Assist the client to the bathroom with a gait belt
D) Restrict fluids to reduce need to void
Answer: C
Rationale: Fall risk clients need direct assistance to bathroom. Gait
belt provides safety. Leaving (A) or independent use (B) increases
fall risk. Fluid restriction (D) is harmful.
5. A client with active measles requires which precautions?
A) Standard only
B) Droplet
,C) Airborne
D) Contact
Answer: C
Rationale: Measles (rubeola) is airborne. Also varicella (chickenpox)
and disseminated zoster require airborne precautions.
6. A nurse is applying restraints. Which action is correct?
A) Tie restraints to the bed rail
B) Apply for 4 hours without reassessment
C) Remove restraint every 2 hours for ROM
D) Use knot that tightens with pulling
Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints must be removed every 2 hours for skin check,
ROM, toileting. Tie to bed frame (not rail) (A). Reassess q1-2h (B).
Use quick-release knot (D).
7. What is the correct order for removing PPE?
A) Gloves → gown → goggles → mask
B) Gown → gloves → mask → goggles
C) Mask → goggles → gloves → gown
D) Goggles → mask → gown → gloves
Answer: A
Rationale: Remove most contaminated (gloves) first, then gown (tie
in back), then goggles/face shield, then mask (last, by straps).
Prevents contamination of face.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. What is
the priority in the first 24 hours?
A) Clean inner cannula daily
, B) Monitor for subcutaneous emphysema
C) Change ties every shift
D) Suction every 4 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema (air leaking into tissues) can
indicate improper placement or pneumothorax—immediate threat.
Daily cleaning (A) and tie changes (C) are routine but not first-day
priority.
9. A client has a new tracheostomy. Which humidification method
is most appropriate?
A) Cool mist humidifier in the room
B) Heated humidification via trach mask or ventilator
C) Saline nebulizer only
D) No humidification needed
Answer: B
Rationale: Tracheostomy bypasses upper airway humidification;
heated humidity prevents mucus plugs, crusting.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a central line. Which action
violates sterile technique?
A) Changing the transparent dressing every 7 days
B) Using sterile gloves to change the cap
C) Allowing the line to hang below the heart
D) Cleaning the hub with alcohol for 15 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: Central line should not hang below heart level (increases
risk of air embolism and backflow). Dressing change q7 days (A) is
correct. Hub cleaning (D) requires 5-15 seconds.
