Dental Hygiene Board Exam | 2026 Updated Comprehensive Practice Questions and Licensure Preparation Material

SIMULATED DENTAL HYGIENE BOARD EXAM: TEST 1 Atrioventricular (AV) valves are thin one-way structures composed of endocardium and located between the atrium and the ventricles.The right atrioventricular valve is also called the tricuspid valve. A. Both statements are true. B. Both statements are false. C. The first statement is true, the second is false. D. The first statement is false, the second is true. A. A. Both the statement and reason are correct and related. B. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. A. All of the following muscles move the head EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Brachialis C. Semispinalis capitis D. Splenius capitis B. The four to five modular pieces in the coccygeal vertebral area are normally fused with several of the lumbar vertebrae.There are seven cervical vertebrae, several of which are fused with the thoracic vertebrae A. Both statements are true. B. Both statements are false. C. The first statement is true, the second is false. D. The first statement is false, the second is true Both statements are false. The corpus luteum is maintained for the first 10 weeks of pregnancy by A. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B. luteinizing hormone (LH) C. estrogen D. progesterone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) The main subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.The autonomic nervous system operates without conscious control. Both statements are true. Which of the following blood cells is an agranular leukocyte? A. Basophil B. Lymphocyte C. Platelet D. Erythrocyte E. Thrombocyte Lymphocyte The orbicularis oris has two parts, the palpebral and orbital portions.The depressor supercilii pulls the eyebrow medially and is responsible for the vertical folds that develop between the eyebrows. Both statements are false. Which of the following cartilages is signet ring-shaped? Cricoid The precentral gyrus is located in the frontal lobe and is involved with sensory perception. The precentral gyrus is responsible for executing involuntary movements. Both statements are false. The malleus, incus, and stapes are ear ossicles. All of the following are characteristic of supernumerary teeth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Never present in posterior regions The sternohyoid muscle is classified as a suprahyoid muscle. The sternohyoid muscle is involved in the action of swallowing. The first statement is false, the second is true. Neuroglia, specialized tissue cells that support neurons, conduct nerve impulses away from the cell body. Neuroglia produce the myelin sheath around the axons of the central nervous system (CNS). The first statement is false, the second is true. Ganglions of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are classified as either sympathetic trunk ganglia or prevertebral ganglia. Ganglions of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are called terminal ganglia Both statements are true Lipid-soluble endocrine secretions that are classified by chemical structure and synthesized from cholesterol are known as steroid hormones. Long, labored breaths and coughing occur frequently with congestive obstructive pulmonary disease because low blood sugar, a key feature of COPD, inhibits the respiratory system NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. A decrease in arterial blood pH below 7.45 is called alkalosis. A decrease in arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called acidosis. The first statement is false, the second is true. Diastolic pressure is the lower reading in the blood pressure measurement. Which of the following blood cells function as phagocytes? Neutrophils Which of the following organs is able to tolerate the greatest degree of ischemia? Skin Manifestations of bulimia include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Consumption of 300 to 600 calories per day Endogenous factors influencing the microbial composition of the oral flora include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Diet Each of the following is classified as a complex carbohydrate EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Monosaccharides Which of the following components of the digestive process is responsible for the mechanical breakdown and mixing of food Teeth and tongue The mechanism that converts excess dietary carbohydrate to fat and stores it in adipose tissue as a long-term energy source is called Lipogenesis The protein efficiency ratio (PER), an indication of a protein's ability to support protein synthesis, is defined as the measure of a protein's ability to support growth Anthrax is categorized as a zoonotic infection because it primarily occurs in nonhumans and is not transferred to humans The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. Immunity acquired by vaccination is BEST classified as artificial active. Which of the following is NOT a bacterial virulence factor? Cytokine Human immunoglobulin IgG, which responds in allergic reactions, is the most abundant of the various types in response to bacterial toxins. Human immunoglobulin IgA is found in exocrine secretions, whereas immunoglobulin IgD triggers B-cell response The first statement is false, the second is true An infection acquired during a hospital stay is referred to as both subclinical and opportunistic. The absence of recognizable symptoms is typical in focal, primary, and subclinical infections. Both statements are false An example of an infectious disease and possible sequela is Lyme disease and arthritis. Chronic liver disease may follow infection with each of the following viruses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Hepatitis A Viruses that persist in the body and cause recurrent disease are called latent. Of which hypersensitivity reaction is a positive tuberculin skin test an example? Type IV An example of an acid-producing bacteria that is also aciduric is Lactobacillus Fetal alcohol syndrome, like Bell's palsy, involves multiple malformations and malocclusions.Cretinism, Down syndrome and both bilateral cleft lip and palate cause malformation in the eye spacing and in jaw structure Both statements are false A peripheral giant cell granuloma usually arises from the periodontal ligament and is characterized histologically by the presence of multinucleated giant cells.Osteoblasts and remnants of enamel and cementum are typical components of peripheral giant cell granuloma The first statement is true, the second is false. A radicular cyst is most frequently located at the apex of the root and is most likely associated with supernumerary teeth.A dentigerous cyst is most likely associated with carious lesions Both statements are false. Osteoarthritis primarily affects weight-bearing joints in adults.Small joints are more susceptible to osteoarthritis than larger joints, which benefit from greater resistance to damage. The first statement is true, the second is false. Both allergic reactions and psychological disorders may result in anaphylactic shock.Septic shock is usually caused by an infectious agent, whereas cardiogenic shock may be caused by heart failure. The first statement is false, the second is true Which of the following interventions is NOT a treatment for leukemia? Renal surgery Which one of the following is NOT considered a variant of normal? Hairy leukoplakia External root resorption can occur as a result of orthodontic treatment because excess forces caused by tooth movement can stimulate osteoclasts Both the statement and reason are correct and related Fever and erythema are considered systemic signs of inflammation.Pain, swelling, and edema are considered local signs of inflammation The first statement is false, the second is true Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at risk for Addison's disease because Addison's disease is caused by an insufficient level of cortisol The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct Both mast cells and basophils are associated with hypersensitivity reactions of an anaphylactic type.Neutrophils are associated with inflammatory responses to irritation Both statements are true. Which one of the following stages of syphilis is properly matched with the clinical manifestation? Tertiary-gumma Frictional keratosis should be biopsied and excised as soon as it is discovered, because untreated frictional keratosis has the potential for malignant transformation NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correc Different classes of diuretics have targeted activity in major sites in the kidney. Which pair accurately expresses the class of diuretic with its major site of action Class: potassium-sparing diuretics/site: distal convoluted tube A 69-year-old man is a new patient to your practice. He states that he has a heart condition but has never had a heart attack. He periodically experiences swelling of the lower legs and is taking a medication called digoxin (Lanoxin). He is also taking a "water pill." His vital signs are normal, but you do notice some edema around the ankles. Questions 43 through 45 refer to this situation. The "water pill" he is referring to is probably a diuretic agent. An area of angular cheilitis that heals after treatment with fluconazole and terconazole is bacterial in origin, because both fluconazole and terconazole are antibacterial preparations NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. An abnormal reaction to a drug by the immune system is considered a side effect, because a side effect produces an undesirable effect from drug action on a nontarget organ The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct If a person is taking a beta-blocker antagonist (β-adrenergic blocker) such as propranolol (Inderal) or atenolol (Tenormin), tachycardia would be unlikely because the blood-thinning ability of beta-blocking agents makes an increased pulse rate unlikely The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT Which drug prescribed for hypertension has been found to cause the LEAST amount of gingival connective tissue enlargement Isradipine Penicillin would be LEAST effective when used against Mycoplasma The official name of a drug determined by the U.S. Adopted Names Council is called the generic name Drugs that produce adverse effect on a fetus are considered teratogenic Penicillin blood level peaks between 45 minutes and 2 hours when the drug is administered orally or intramuscularly.When penicillin is administered intravenously, the level peaks within 10 to 20 minutes. Both statements are false. Which of the following conditions causes a delay in dental development? Hypothyroidism A 6-year-old girl arrives for her 6-month dental hygiene care appointment with just one complaint. She feels "itchy all over." It started about 10 minutes ago, when she was outside playing in the grass. Initially, her vital signs are normal except for slight tachycardia. She has some skin lesions that appear to be urticaria, and her lower lip is beginning to swell. Within a minute she complains of difficulty breathing and her respiratory rate is increased.The normal respiratory rate for this child is approximately 20 respirations/minute What term is used to describe a lesion that is stem-like? Pedunculated The device used to measure blood pressure is called a sphygmomanometer Bronchial asthma is characterized by all of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION Airway hyporesponsiveness to stimuli A 69-year-old man is a new patient to your practice. He states that he has a heart condition but has never had a heart attack. He periodically experiences swelling of the lower legs and is taking a medication called digoxin (Lanoxin). He is also taking a "water pill." His vital signs are normal, but you notice some edema around his ankles.The MOST likely name for this patient's "heart condition" is congestive heart failure A periodontal examination conducted on a 48-year-old man reveals probing depths of 5 to 6 mm in proximal surfaces of all posterior teeth, normal gingival contour, radiographic evidence of bone loss, and generalized gingival inflammation. What disease classification is present? Moderate chronic periodontitis Michael, a 12-year-old Asian adolescent, is scheduled for his first dental hygiene care appointment and dental examination in 5 years. His mother reports that he is generally in good health but that he takes Adderall XR 30 mg/day for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and still exhibits clumsiness, irritability, and an inability to focus for even short periods. He is not doing well in school, and the teachers have recommended that he be held back a year. His mother also reports that the "goose egg" on his forehead was sustained while he was roughhousing under the kitchen table. She says that he is always getting bumps and bruises because of his inability to control his behavior.All of the following statements about attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION Children with ADHD have a higher incidence of intellectual and developmental disabilities (IDDs) Michael, a 12-year-old Asian adolescent, is scheduled for his first dental hygiene care appointment and dental examination in 5 years. His mother reports that he is generally in good health but that he takes Adderall XR 30 mg/day for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and still exhibits clumsiness, irritability, and an inability to focus for even short periods. He is not doing well in school, and the teachers have recommended that he be held back a year. His mother also reports that the "goose egg" on his forehead was sustained while he was roughhousing under the kitchen table. She says that he is always getting bumps and bruises because of his inability to control his behavior.There are no oral manifestations directly associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), because early gingivitis is associated with poor oral hygiene. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. Clubbing of the fingers is MOST often seen in congenital heart disease. The blood pressure may be artificially increased if the cuff is too small, because the stethoscope cannot be properly placed over the carotid artery. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. All of the following conditions are linked to an oral manifestation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Spina bifida Your next patient, Mrs. Smith, an African-American woman who is 50 years old, has been waiting for a kidney transplant for 9 months. Three times a week, she must undergo kidney dialysis as a lifesaving therapy. She takes nifedipine (Procardia) for hypertension and Wellbutrin (bupropion) for depression. Her chief complaint is "My gums look big, and they keep bleeding."All of the following oral manifestations are associated with end-stage renal disease or its treatment EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Rampant dental caries Your next patient, Mrs. Smith, an African-American woman who is 50 years old, has been waiting for a kidney transplant for 9 months. Three times a week, she must undergo kidney dialysis as a lifesaving therapy. She takes nifedipine (Procardia) for hypertension and Wellbutrin (bupropion) for depression. Her chief complaint is "My gums look big, and they keep bleeding."In light of her current health, it is likely that Mrs. Smith's gums appear large and tend to bleed because inflammation, accumulation of urea, and water retention are common feature of end-stage renal disease. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. A collection of sebaceous glands commonly found on the gingiva is called a mucocele.A mucocele may result from trauma to a minor salivary duct The first statement is false, the second is true. A narrow slit in gingival, mucosal, or epidermal tissue is called an exostosis.An area of hardened or abnormally hard tissue is described as idiopathic Both statements are false. Which of the following is NOT an oral manifestation of HIV infection? Pneumocystis jiroveci Which of the following interactions of x-rays and matter results in low-energy radiation produced by outer shell electrons shifting to an inner vacancy Photoelectric effect Which of the following radiographic projections would be MOST helpful in imaging the maxillary sinus? Water's projection Consumer and industrial products are the major contributor of ionizing radiation to our population because radiation produced in these industries account for more than 80% of the ionizing radiation to which our population is exposed NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. Although tissues have the capacity to repair some degree of damage from ionizing radiation, accumulated unrepaired damage is called the cumulative effect.The somatic effect of ionizing radiation refers to exposure resulting in injury to future generations. The first statement is true, the second is false The portion of the target bombarded by electrons is called the focal spot. Radiographic diagnosis contributes significantly to the final diagnosis of all the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Cementoma An x-ray produced by the slowing down of an accelerating electron as it passes near the nucleus of the target atom is called Bremsstrahlung A radiolucent area in the mandibular anterior region of a 33-year-old black woman should be suspected of being a traumatic mandibular cyst or a median mandibular cyst because both of these lesions are common and have race, age, and gender predilections. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. The aluminum filter narrows the x-ray beam to a specific diameter because aluminum effectively filters (removes) low-energy, non-penetrating wavelengths from the beam. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct If you wanted to decrease patient radiation exposure, which of the following PIDs (position-indicating devices or cones) would you choose? 16-inch rectangular Radiation damage from the radiolysis of water to hydrogen peroxide within DNA macromolecules is referred to as indirect. The silver halide crystals in the emulsion of radiographic film determine the speed of the film.Larger silver halide crystals in the emulsion of dental radiographic film result in slower film but a more detailed, high contrast image The first statement is true, the second is false Dark stains on radiographic films may result from contamination from all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Fixer splash before processing A patient with acute fluoride poisoning should first be given milk to drink, followed by measures to induce vomiting.Charcoal compounds followed by large quantities of water are recommended to induce vomiting in acute fluoride poisoning. Both statements are false The administration of oxygen is NOT indicated in the treatment of hyperventilation A 42-year-old woman taking no medications and with no significant medical history is scheduled for comprehensive dental hygiene care. Initially she has no complaints about her health, and her vital signs are within normal limits. After you explain the procedure to be performed and initiate the dental hygiene intervention, she begins to complain of "feeling faint." What should be the initial emergency management for this patient? Reclining the dental chair to the Trendelenburg position During the first moments of dental hygiene treatment, a 42-year-old woman with no significant medical history, no current health concerns, and normal vital signs who is taking no medications begins to complain of "feeling faint." Even after the dental chair is reclined, the woman becomes very pale and loses consciousness. The next measures the hygienist should initiate are first assessing the airway, opening it if necessary, and then placing a bite block in the patient's mouth.In this situation, after reclining the dental chair, the hygienist should next take the action of activating the emergency medical system (EMS).The next measure the hygienist should take is moving the patient from the dental chair Both statements are false During the first moments of dental hygiene treatment, a 42-year-old woman with no significant medical history, no current health concerns, and normal vital signs who is taking no medications begins to complain of "feeling faint." Even after the dental chair is reclined, the woman becomes very pale and loses consciousness. During the loss of consciousness, all of the following signs may be noted EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? "Fruity" breath odor A 42-year-old woman who is taking no medications and has no significant past medical history is scheduled for comprehensive dental hygiene care. Initially, she has no complaints about her health, and her vital signs are within normal limits. After you explain the procedure she will undergo and initiate the dental hygiene intervention, the woman begins to complain of "feeling faint." As this woman regains consciousness, what is MOST likely to occur? Her pulse rate and blood pressure will return to normal A 42-year-old woman taking no medications and with no significant past medical history is scheduled for comprehensive dental hygiene care. Initially, she has no complaints about her health, and her vital signs are within normal limits. After you explain the procedure to be performed and initiate the dental hygiene intervention, the woman begins to complain of "feeling faint." Once this woman states that she is feeling fine, what should the dental hygienist do? Once vital signs are normal, discharge the patient and allow her to go home Before a culture for suspected angular cheilitis is scheduled, application of an antifungal ointment to give the area a chance to resolve illustrates the clinical diagnosis, because a key feature of clinical diagnosis is based solely on the clinical picture. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. Infrequent dental visits and emotional stress are risk factors for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).Leukemia, age, and gender are risk factors for NUG. Both statements are false. All of the following are etiologic factors for gingival recession EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Alveolar bone loss See 250 more DENTAL HYGIENE BOARD REVIEW 2022 Processes involved in development of upper lip maxillary process First brachial arch mandibular process- because it fuses to maxillary and forms the corner of the mouth Forms the side of the nose lateral nasal permanent maxillary first molar longest root mesiolingual lateral palatine processes develop from the maxilla during the ________________ week 6th lateral pterygoid Depresses and protracts mandible and moves it from side to side ___________________________ teeth are nonsuccedaneous molars minerals involved in the growth and formation of bones and teeth Phosphorus, calcium, magnesium, and potassium The maxillary first premolar usually has ________________ roots 2 What muscle depresses the tongue? hyoglossus what type of epithelium lines large ducts of the salivary glands simple columnar epithelium chief functions of the hypothalamus integration of autonomic nerve impulses and the regulation of numerous endocrine functions including body temperature as well as hunger and satiety. The hypothalamus also maintains consciousness and sleep patterns. Rathke's pouch an invagination at the roof of the developing mouth in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane. Forms the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland Both the maxilla and the mandible develop from the _____________________________ arch first branchial Chromosome replication takes place during the _______________ stage interphase During ______________________, chromatids line up at the center, spindle fibers attach at the centromere; and the centromere replicates metaphase During _________________________ the chromosomes coil and contract; each chromosome consists of a pair of strands called chromatids, held together by a centromere prophase During ______________________ spindle fibers pull the new chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. anaphase Vit D deficiency rickets, osteomalacia enamel hypoplasia Vitamin A is ________ soluble fat Vitamin A functions synthesis and function of epithelial cells normal activity of epiphyseal cartilage cells and normal endochondral bone. Maintenance of the integrity of the sulcus. Normal growth and function of the salivary glands. Normal growth of dentin and enamel normal growth of periodontal tissues maintenance of epithelium. Tryptophan one of 20 essential amino acids that cannot be synthesized by humans and must be provided in the diet Biotin is B____ B7 Deficiency of biotin glossitis, gray oral mucosa, and atrophy of lingual papillae on the dorsal surface of the tongue Phosphorus deficiency dentin formation and incomplete calcification of teeth ____________ provide primary source of quick energy CHO ________________________ immunity is achieved through vaccination by an injection with killed, inactivated, or attenuated microorganisms or toxoid artificially acquired active _______________________immunity is achieved by injection of an immune serum or γ-globulin artificially acquired passive naturally acquired passive immunity Antibodies of a mother that are passed to her infant The incubation period is from one to eight hours for ____________________ Staphylococcal food poisoning ____________________ is a more general term that refers to the ability of a virus to deteriorate cells Cytopathic Mycobacterium is associated with ________________ and __________________ tuberculosis and leprosy Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus can cause pneumonia, and Klebsiella pneumoniae microbes are capable of causing ________________ pneumoniae _____________________________ appear on the tooth surface as an initial bacterial colonizer Gram-positive cocci S. salivarius, S. oralis, and S. mitis predominate an infant's oral microflora by the___________ month of life 1st Hep __________ fecal-oral route Hep B -blood -unprotected sex w/infected ppl -born to infected mom -contact w/infected blood -double-stranded DNA envelope - incubation period for hepatitis B is 45 to 60 days vaccination available _______________________ is a microscopic change in which cells of one type are transformed or replaced by cells not normally found in that area Metaplasia _________________________ is enlargement of a tissue or organ resulting from an increase in number of normal cells Hyperplasia _______________________ is a failure of full development of an organ or tissue hypoplasia ________________________ represents dysfunctional development manifested as an alteration in size, shape, and organization of adult cells Dysplasia A ________________________ cyst, also called a follicular cyst, forms around the crown of unerupted or developing teeth dentigerous dentigerous cyst is most frequently located in the ________________________________ area where it may enlarge to extend high into the ramus mandibular third molar A ____________________________ cyst is believed to arise from degeneration of the tooth germ during development primordial develops in place of a tooth ** ____________________ ___________________ is associated with a nonvital tooth and is most often asymptomatic periapical granuloma __________________ cysts have the distinction of developing after tooth removal Residual __________________________ provide the first line of defense during bacterial invasion of the periodontium. Leukocytes ______________________ are the most numerous of the circulating blood cells and take part in red blood cell development erythrocytes ____________________________ found in blood and extremely important in the formation of a clot, also arrive later in the immune response Thrombocytes (platelets) ______________________, seen in chronic inflammation, are principal carriers of antibodies Plasma cells __________________ ____________________, also called papillary hyperplasia of the palate is most often associated with a complete maxillary or partial denture and is considered a type of denture stomatitis Palatal papillomatosis Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia is also referred to as ______________________ cementenoma More info: - occurs in middle age - benign - anterior mandibular region - asymptomatic - vital teeth _________________________ is the fusion of tooth roots by cementum only Concrescence Alupent (metaproterenol) is frequently prescribed for patients with ____________________ asthma - sympathomimetic (adrenergic) agonist that causes bronchodilator Propylparabens and methylparabens are no longer present in dental anesthetic cartridgesT/F TRUE The study of how a drug enters the body, circulates within the body, is changed by the body, and leaves the body is called Pharmacokinetics _________________________ has been directly associated with drug-influenced gingival enlargement Procardia (nifedipine) Interactions between TCAs (anti-depressant) and adrenergic agents (epi) can ____________________ blood pressure increase Lasix (Furosemide) is classified as a ___________________. loop diuretic Cardizem is a calcium _____________________________ channel blocker nystatin is an __________________ agent useful in the treatment of candidiasis antifungal Adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agents mimic the action of the ______________________________________ sympathetic autonomic nervous system (SANS) In administration of local anesthesia adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agents are used to produce ____________________ and ______________________ hemostasis and vasoconstriction beta-adrenergic blocker antagonist blocks the action of substances, such as adrenaline, on nerve cells and causes blood vessels to relax and dilate bind to beta-adrenoceptors and selectively prevent (block) norepinephrine and epinephrine from binding to these receptors. This mechanism inhibits normal sympathetic autonomic nervous system (SANS) effects that act through these receptors ________________ - The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar aligns with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar Class I _____________________________ - The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar by at least the width of a premolar; the mandible is retruded; maxillary incisors are protruded Class II, division I ___________________________________- - The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar by at least the width of a premolar. Additionally, the mandible is retruded and one or more maxillary incisors are retruded. Class II, division II The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes (by more than the width of a premolar) distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar Class III ______________________________ is caused by the lateral spread of decay at the dentino-enamel junction through an undermining process Backward caries _________________ result from bruxism or repeated parafunctional contact and most commonly occur on incisal edges of anterior teeth as well as cusp tips of posterior teeth Wear facets Deep cervical lymph nodes can be palpated along the _______________________________ muscle sternocleidomastoid Diastolic blood pressure readings reflect _______________________ ______________________ and are the lowest pressure of the cardiac cycle ventricular relaxation Which of the following measurements represents the crestal level of healthy interproximal bone? 2 mm apical to the cementoenamel junction Endogenous stain that appears clinically as dark bands through enamel, especially near the cervix is caused by Administration of tetracycline during tooth formation The radiographic anatomic landmark of the maxilla that appears as a hole in bone found at the midline of the anterior portion of the hard palate is the incisive foramen. The purpose of the lead collimator is to _____________________________ restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam _________________________, an integral component of safe equipment, removes the less penetrating, longer x-rays from the beam Filtration Dose equivalent, called _________, is the measure of biologic effects produced by different types of radiation rem ________ describes the amount of radiation absorbed by a tissue RAD ______________ absorbed dose radiation ____________________ is the International System of Units (SI) unit for radiation absorbed dose Gray, or gy, The __________________ is the radiopaque spine located on the medial pterygoid plate that is radiographically visible posterior to the maxillary tuberosity hamulus Excessive vertical angulation during radiographic exposure results in which of the following? foreshortening Particulate and electromagnetic radiation with sufficient energy to remove orbital electrons from atoms is referred to as what type of radiation? ionizing Signs of neurogenic shock bradycardia peripheral vasodilation hypotension oxygen is needed during hyperglycemic emergency syncope asthma attack embedding of new periodontal ligament fibers into new cementum and formation of a new gingival attachment in an area previously degenerated by disease rather than repair of the periodontal attachment apparatus after an injury New attachment growth and differentiation of new cells and intercellular substances to form or re-form tissues or parts of the same type as the precursor; primary means of healing after NSPT, creating a longer junctional epithelium Regeneration also referred to as healing by scar tissue or fibrosis; does not necessarily restore the original architecture or function of the tissue or part Repair close adaptation of the marginal gingival epithelium without complete pocket elimination; occurs with shrinkage of the gingiva after therapy; often occurs in conjunction with the regeneration of a longer junctional epithelium Epithelial attachment Symptoms of _______________________________ include polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, polyphagia, blurred vision, and increased susceptibility to infections poorly controlled diabetes Conditions exhibited by patients with _____________________________ include weakness, anxiety, edema, cyanosis, increased heart rate (tachycardia) and shortness of breath. congestive heart failure A protocol for the control of dental caries includes the usage of sugar-free chewing gum containing xylitol _________________________ in the exposed dentinal tubules acts as the transducing medium for conveying peripheral stimuli to free nerve endings Fluid flow Orthostatic hypotension in the pregnant client is resolved by having the client lie on her left side ________________________________ are useful when an embrasure space is partially or completely open and when there are embrasure spaces adjacent to exposed root surfaces with proximal concavities Interdental or end tufted brushes ____________________________________ of the patient is the MOST important consideration when presenting a case to a dental hygiene study group Concealing and protecting the identity The components of a dental implant include an __________________________________________ (4 things) implant abutment superstructure implant-assisted prosthesis CHX causes ________________ stain and ____________ gingival calculus brownish yellow stain supra gingival Phenol-related essential oils (Listerine and many equivalent generic store brands) can be used as _________________ mouthrinses preprocedural Costs of treatment and financial arrangements ARE/ARE NOT part of the care plan ARE NOT Dental Hygiene Board Review What are the 6 classes of nutrients? - correct answer-carbohydrates proteins lipids vitamins minerals water What monosaccharide is the main source of fuel for the brain? - correct answer-Glucose What monosaccharide is present in all disaccharides? - correct answer-glucose What polysaccharide provides a carbohydrate storage form of energy in humans and animals? - correct answer-glycogen How many grams of fiber should be consumed daily? - correct answer-25-38 grams What nutrient's main function is to provide energy to the body? - correct answer-carbohydrates What is the daily requirement for carbohydrates? - correct answer-130 grams What 2 monosaccharides make up sucrose? - correct answer-glucose & fructose What 2 monosaccharides make up lactose? - correct answer-glucose & galactose What 2 monosaccharides make up maltose? - correct answer-2 glucose molecules What are the 3 nutritive sweeteners? - correct answer-sorbitol mannitol xylitol What is the most widely used non-nutritive sweetener? - correct answer-aspartame What alternative sweetener must carry a phenylketonuria (PKU) warning? - correct answer-aspartame What artificial sweetener is the active ingredient in Splenda? - correct answer-sucralose What organ AND cells are affected by type I diabetes mellitus? - correct answer-pancreas & islets of langerhans The following are symptoms of which systemic condition: increased risk for periodontal disease, xerostomia, loss of sight and kidney function, poor circulation, heart disease, and slow would healing. - correct answer-diabetes mellitus Hypoglycemia occurs when blood glucose levels are below _____ mg/dl. - correct answer-70 Name several symptoms of hypoglycemia. - correct answer-shakiness dizziness sweating hunger lightheadedness headaches irritability Which type of diabetes is insulin-resistant? - correct answer-type II diabetes What organic compound makes up proteins? - correct answer-amino acids What is the main function of proteins? - correct answer-repair & build tissues/cells How many amino acids are essential(unable to be synthesized by the body)? - correct answer-9 Where does digestion of proteins begin? - correct answer-stomach What is the condition characterized by the liver's inability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine? - correct answer-phenylketonuria (PKU) What is kwashiorkor a result of? - correct answer-severe protein deficiency What type of lipid carries the maximum number of hydrogen atoms? - correct answer-saturated fatty acids What are the 2 essential polyunsaturated fatty acids? - correct answer-linoleic fatty acid (omega-6) and linolenic fatty acid (omge-3) What fatty acid is considered "heart-healthy"? - correct answer-omega-3 Which vitamins are fat-soluble? - correct answer-A, D, E & K Where are fat soluble vitamins stored? - correct answer-liver & fatty tissues What vitamin helps with the absorption of calcium and phosphorus? - correct answer-vitamin D Rickets is a result of a deficiency in what vitamin? - correct answer-vitamin D Overconsumption of what vitamin can interfere with blood coagulation and cause gingival bleeding? - correct answer-vitamin E What vitamin aids in the formation of the blood clotting factor prothrombin? - correct answer-vitamin E What vitamins are water-soluble? - correct answer-B & C Deficiency in which B vitamin can lead to cheilosis and glossitis? - correct answer-riboflavin (B2) What vitamin assists in forming DNA/RNA and is important to take during pregnancy? - correct answer-folic acid What B vitamin is needed for metabolism of folic acid? - correct answer-cobalamin (B12) Deficiency in what vitamin causes scurvy? - correct answer-vitamin C Smokers have an increased need for what vitamin? - correct answer-vitamin C What is the most abundant mineral in the body? - correct answer-calcium True/False: Sodium is a cause of high blood pressure. - correct answer-False- it does not cause HBP, but it does aggravates Fine, soft hair growth that occurs with anorexia is known as... - correct answer-lanugo What term means dental erosion without bacterial involvement? - correct answer-perimolysis The eating disorder pica can be caused by a deficiency in which 2 minerals? - correct answer-iron & zinc What type of fluoride should be recommended to patients with bulimia? - correct answer-sodium fluoride (mouthrinses) What is an alternative name for glucose? - correct answer-dextrose What birth defect can be caused by an insufficient amount of folic acid intake during pregnancy? - correct answer-spina bifida Which fatty acid maintains serum cholesterol levels? - correct answer-monounsaturated Which vitamin interferes with the functions of vitamin K? - correct answer-vitamin E What vitamin promotes collagen synthesis? - correct answer-vitamin C Which vitamin is responsible for maintaining eye health? - correct answer-vitamin A Severe niacin deficiency can lead to what condition? - correct answer-pallegra Severe thiamine deficiency can lead to what condition? - correct answer-beriberi Do disinfectants kill spores? - correct answer-no; disinfectants kill/inactivate most pathogenic MOs but not spores What conditions are required for adequate steam sterilization? (temp/psi/time) - correct answer-250°F 15-20 psi 30 minutes True/false: External indicators like tape that changes color guarantees that the instruments are sterile. - correct answer-False; this only indicates that the instruments were heat processed How is the proper functioning of an autoclave tested and how often? - correct answer-spore checks; weekly What is the normal range for pulse/heart rate? - correct answer-60-100 bpm What BP range is considered stage 1 hypertension? - correct answer-130-139/80-89 What BP range is considered stage 2 hypertension? - correct answer-140/90+ A patient with chronic COPD would be considered what ASA classification? - correct answer-ASA III What is the normal range for respirations in adults? - correct answer-12-20 breaths/min A healthy pregnant patient would be considered what ASA classification? - correct answer-ASA II What instrument is used to measure furcation involvement? - correct answer-nabers probe How many classifications of furcations are there? - correct answer-4 Which class of furcation is characterized by the ability to pass through the roots without being seen clinically? - correct answer-class III How many classes of mobility are there? - correct answer-3; slight, moderate & severe Which classification of mobility is characterized by both horizontal and vertical movement? - correct answer-class III Which class of occlusion is present when the mesial portion of the max canine is distal to the distal surface of the mandibular canine by the width of a premolar? - correct answer-class III What is the nutrient source of supragingival calculus? - correct answer-saliva What is the nutrient source of subgingival calculus? - correct answer-gingival crevicular fluid What is the cause of black stain around the cervical third of facial and lingual teeth? - correct answer-gram-positive bacteria What color stain is caused by internal resorption? - correct answer-pink What color stain is caused by chlorhexidine and stannous fluoride? - correct answer-yellow-brown/brown What is the critical pH level for enamel? - correct answer-5.5 What is the critical pH level for cementum? - correct answer-6.7 True/False: Fluoride interferes with bacterial metabolism. However, it is never bacteriocidal. - correct answer-true/false; in high concentration (like professional applications) fluoride is bacteriodical True/False: Teeth must be polished prior the the application of fluoride, otherwise the fluoride will not adhere to the teeth. - correct answer-false; fluoride is able to bind to pellicle, biofilm, and tooth structure Where is systemic fluoride circulated and absorbed? - correct answer-circulated in the blood stream; absorbed in the stomach and small intestine What is the optimal fluoride level for water? - correct answer-0.7 ppm mg/L What agency monitors fluoride concentration in community drinking water? - correct answer-Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) What agency monitors/sets limits for fluoride concentration in bottled water? - correct answer-FDA Is systemic fluoride recommended for pregnant women? - correct answer-no; there is little to no evidence that systemic fluoride crosses the barrier of the placenta At what point would de-fluoridation of public water be mandated by the EPA? - correct answer-if amount exceeds 4m of Fl/L Are fluoride supplements recommended for children (any age) living in areas with more than 0.6ppm of fluoride in water? - correct answer-no What dosage of fluoride is recommended for children 3-6 years old with 0.3ppm of fluoride in their drinking water? - correct answer-0.5mg/day What dosage of fluoride is recommended for children 6-16 years old with 0.3ppm of fluoride in their drinking water? - correct answer-1mg/day What dosage of fluoride is recommended for children 3-6 years old with 0.3-0.6ppm of fluoride in their drinking water? - correct answer-0.25mg/day What 2 food/drink sources contain the largest amount of fluoride? - correct answer-tea & fish What type of fluoride can be used with composite and porcelain restorations? - correct answer-sodium fluoride How long should sodium fluoride foam be used for maximum efficacy? - correct answer-4 minutes How long is sodium fluoride varnish retained? - correct answer-24-48 hours What type of fluoride is contraindicated in patients with composite and porcelain restorations? - correct answer-acidulated phosphate fluoride What type of fluoride can stain teeth black and cause metallic taste? - correct answer-silver diamine fluoride (SDF) What type of fluoride should be used for hypersensitivity? - correct answer-5% NaF varnish How much is the safely tolerated dose? - correct answer-1/4 the certainly lethal dose What should be done first to treat acute fluoride toxicity? - correct answer-induce vomiting What brushing method is recommended for children? - correct answer-fones (circular motion) What brushing method is recommended for ortho patients? - correct answer-charters (brush is angled 45° toward occlusal plane) What active ingredient in toothpaste controls tartar? - correct answer-pyrophospahtes What active ingredient in toothpaste is best to treat hypersensitivity? - correct answer-potassium nitrate What active ingredient in toothpaste has an antimicrobial affect? - correct answer-triclosan What active ingredient in toothpaste prevents caries? - correct answer-fluoride Which graceys should be used on mesial surfaces of posterior teeth? - correct answer-11/12 & 15/16 Which graceys should be used on distal surfces of posterior teeth? - correct answer-13/14 & 17/18 Which gracey is used on the direct buccal and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth? - correct answer-7/8 Which graceys can be used on all anterior teeth? - correct answer-1/2 Which ultrasonic produces an elliptical motion? - correct answer-magnetostrictive Which ultrasonic produces a linear motion and is only active on the lateral sides? - correct answer-piezoelectric What are sonic scalers powered by? - correct answer-compressed air List several contraindications for using ultrasonic scalers? - correct answer-demineralized areas exposed dentin newly erupted teeth communicable diseases respiratory conditions difficulty swallowing What is are 2 major contraindications for air polishing? - correct answer-sodium-restricted diets(hypertension) and respiratory conditions What color are nitrous oxide cylinders? - correct answer-blue What color are oxygen cylinders? - correct answer-green What therapeutic mouthwash tends to cause staining on teeth and tongue? - correct answer-chlorhexidine Is chlorhexidine bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic? - correct answer-bacteriocidal True/False: Chlorhexidine rinse has no effect on calculus formation. - correct answer-false; it increases supragingival calculus formation In universal sickles/curets, what is the angulation of the face of the blade in relation to the terminal shank? - correct answer-90° What food should be restricted if a patient is taking Lipitor? - correct answer-grapefruit What structure is located on the lingual aspect between the maxillary central incisors? - correct answer-incisive papilla What ingredient, commonly found in toothpaste, can inactivate chlorhexidine? - correct answer-sodium lauryl sulfate What are the 3 directions of strokes that can be used? - correct answer-horizontal vertical oblique What angle should the blade of a universal instrument be at when scaling? - correct answer-70-80° What type of stroke is used with a periodontal file? - correct answer-pull stroke What is the area of no vibration called on an ultrasonic scaler? - correct answer-nodal point _________________ is loss of tooth structure from tooth flexure during mastication that causes wedge-shaped defects in the cervical area of the tooth? - correct answer-abfraction What term means an abnormal bend or curve in the root of a tooth? - correct answer-dilaceration What term means the union of teeth by cementum? - correct answer-concrescence In what condition is it common to see taurodontism? - correct answer-down syndrome In what tooth is dens invaginatus most commonly found? - correct answer-maxillary lateral incisors What teeth are most commonly microdonts? - correct answer-maxillary lateral incisors (peg laterals) Term meaning no teeth - correct answer-anadontia Term meaning decreased number of teeth - correct answer-hypodontia Term meaning missing 6 teeth or more - correct answer-oligodontia What is the most common supernumerary tooth? - correct answer-mesiodens (bt maxillary central incisors) Term meaning increased number of teeth - correct answer-hyperdontia Term for extra teeth - correct answer-supernumerary What condition is characterized by the underformation of the clavicles and presence of supernumerary teeth? - correct answer-cleidocranial dysplasia What 2 malformations are related to congenital syphillis? - correct answer-hutchinson's incisors & mulberry molars Which alteration in tooth structure has a translucent appearance and leads to obliterated pulp chambers and canals? - correct answer-dentinogenesis imperfecta What is another term for dentinogenesis imperfecta? - correct answer-hereditary opalescent dentin What type cell causes melanin pigmentation? - correct answer-melanocytes What condition is caused by adrenal cortical insufficiency and can cause a bronzing of the skin? - correct answer-addison's disease With nicotine stomatitis, was appears as scattered red dots? - correct answer-inflamed minor salivary glands What it the most common fungal infection? - correct answer-candida albicans What type of candida presents as white plaques that wipe off? - correct answer-psuedomembranous candidiasis What type of candida presents as red areas? - correct answer-erythematous candidiasis What type of candida presents as a red area on the midline of the dorsal surface of the tongue? - correct answer-median rhomboid glossitis What type of candida presents as fissured areas in the corner of the mouth? - correct answer-angular cheilitis What is another name for median rhomboid glossitis? - correct answer-central papillary atrophy What lesion is characterized by areas of erythema on the tongue surrounded by a raised white border? - correct answer-geographic tongue What are 2 other names for geographic tongue? - correct answer-erythema migrans & benign migratory glossitis Is ankyloglossia more common in males or females? - correct answer-males 3:1 Hairy tongue is caused by the elongation of what type of papillae? - correct answer-filiform What lesion is characterized reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to irritation or trauma? - correct answer-fibroma (aka irritation fibroma, traumatic fibroma & focal fibrous hyperplasia) What causes epulis fissuratum? - correct answer-denture flange/poor fitting dentures What is the name of a "pregnancy tumor"? - correct answer-pyogenic granuloma What type of tissue is a pulp polyp made of? - correct answer-granulation tissue What 3 medications most commonly cause gingival hyperplasia? - correct answer-phenytoin/dilantin (anticonvulsant) cyclosporine calcium channel blockers True/False: Peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs in the bone and central giant cell granuloma occurs in soft tissue. - correct answer-false; it is the opposite What type of lesion only occurs on moveable, nonkeratinized mucosa? - correct answer-aphthous ulcers Which virus is characterized by the following: occurs at a young age, flu-like symptoms, and oral vesicles? - correct answer-primary herpes simplex virus(HSV) What virus causes infectious mononucleosis? - correct answer-epstein-barr virus (EBV) What lesion caused by the epstein-barr virus is also one of the first oral manifestations of an HIV infection? - correct answer-oral hairy luekoplakia What condition is caused by human herpes virus-8 (HHV-8), is characterized by blue/purple spots, and is seen in patients with HIV? - correct answer-kaposi sarcoma What virus causes herpangina and hand-foot-and-mouth disease? - correct answer-coxsackie virus What disease is characterized by crusting of lips and target-shaped lesions? - correct answer-erythema multiforme What disease is characterized by a butterfly rash on the face? - correct answer-systemic lupus erythematosus What is the most common site of a mucocele? - correct answer-lower lip What causes a mucocele? - correct answer-trauma/severance of a salivary duct In what condition is whickam striae present? - correct answer-lichen planus Lichen planus commonly occurs in what type of patients (gender & age)? - correct answer-women ages 40+ What is a mucocele on the floor of the mouth that resembles a frog belly called? - correct answer-ranula What is the most common place to find a sialolith? - correct answer-submandibular (wharton's) duct What is the most common salivary gland tumor? - correct answer-pleomorphic adenoma (benign mixed tumor) What salivary gland is affected by mumps? - correct answer-parotid What is the most common form of oral cancer? - correct answer-squamous cell carcinoma What is the most common area for salivary gland tumors? - correct answer-parotid gland What is the most common intraoral area for salivary gland tumors? - correct answer-hard palate What are the 2 most common sites for oral cancer? - correct answer-lateral tongue & floor of the mouth What type of cyst occurs at the apex of a necrotic tooth? - correct answer-radicular/periapical cyst What type of cyst occurs in an area following extraction? - correct answer-residual cyst What type of cyst occurs around the crown of an impacted tooth? - correct answer-dentigerous cyst What is the most common area to see an odontogenic keratocyst? - correct answer-posterior mandible Where are lateral periodontal cysts found? - correct answer-mandibular premolar area Where are globulomaxillary cysts found? - correct answer-between maxillary lateral incisors and canines What type of cyst appears as a heart shape between the maxillary central incisors? - correct answer-nasopalatine duct cyst What is the most common odontogenic tumor? - correct answer-odontoma What type of odontogenic tumor has a soap-bubble appearance and can usually be found in the posterior mandible? - correct answer-ameloblastoma What bone lesion is found in the the periapical region of mandibular anterior teeth in 40+ year old African American females? - correct answer-periapical cemental dysplasia (aka periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia) Florid cemento-osseous dyplasia is typically seen in what patients (gender/race/age)? - correct answer-40+ year old black females What disease is characterized by the following: thickening and enlargement of bones that is more common in men 50+ and can appear as cotton-wool radiopacities? - correct answer-paget's disease What structure connects the PDL to the cementum? - correct answer-sharpey's fibers What fibers of the PDL is the most abundant? - correct answer-oblique What PDL fibers are only found in multirooted teeth? - correct answer-interradicular fibers What is the most common cell of the PDL? - correct answer-fibroblasts What type of cell is responsible for the production of the cementum? - correct answer-cementoblasts What type of cell is responsible for the resorption of the cementum? - correct answer-cementoclasts What type of cell is responsible for the production of the bone? - correct answer-osteoblasts What type of cell is responsible for the resorption of the bone? - correct answer-osteoclasts What is the best indicator of the damage to the periodontium? - correct answer-clinical attachment level (CAL) The measurement from the CEJ to the base of a pocket indicates what? - correct answer-clinical attachment level (CAL) In health, the crest of the alveolar bone should be ______mm apical to the CEJ. - correct answer-1-2 What is the cause of most gingivitis? - correct answer-biofilm Why is tetracycline the drug of choice to treat necrotizing periodontal diseases? - correct answer-it concentrates in the gingival crevicular fluid List some clinical findings of necrotizing periodontal diseases. - correct answer-punched out papillae pseudomembrane bad odor pain inflammation bleeding What type of defect occurs when the base of the pocket is coronal to the alveolar bone? - correct answer-suprabony defect What type of defect occurs when the base of the pocket is apical to the crest of the alveolar bone? - correct answer-infrabony defect What oral condition is characterized by a red line around the gingival margin and is seen in patients with HIV? - correct answer-linear gingival erythema (LGE) What genetic disorder is characterized by hyperkeratosis of palms/soles of feet, severe periodontal destruction, and premature tooth loss? - correct answer-papillon-lefevre syndrome True/False: There is an increased caries risk in patients with down syndrome. - correct answer-false What condition is characterized by inflammation of mucosa around an implant? - correct answer-peri-implant mucositis Where does acquired pellicle come from? - correct answer-saliva glycoproteins What is the most common periodontal pathogen? - correct answer-porphyromonas gingivalis What bacteria is most often associated with gingival inflammation during pregnancy? - correct answer-prevotella intermedia What bacteria is associated with aggressive periodontal disease? - correct answer-aggregetibacter actinomycetecomitans What type of bacteria are associated with endotoxins? - correct answer-gram negative What term means the movement of cells to the site of inflammation? - correct answer-chemotaxis What term means the movement of WBCs to the periphery of the blood vessel walls? - correct answer-margination What biochemical mediator causes pain, swelling, and inflammation? - correct answer-prostaglandins What stage is characterized by 3-4mm CAL with PDs up to 5mm? - correct answer-stage II What stage is characterized by 5+mm CAL with bone loss into the middle third of the root and the loss of 5 or more teeth? - correct answer-stage IV What stage is characterized by 1-2mm CAL with PDs of 4mm or less? - correct answer-stage I What stage is characterized by 5+mm CAL with bone loss into the middle third of the root and the loss of 4 or less teeth? - correct answer-stage III What does grading of periodontal disease indicate? - correct answer-the rate of progression of disease What does staging of periodontal disease indicate? - correct answer-the severity & complexity of disease What are the 2 biggest modifiers when grading periodontal disease? - correct answer-smoking & diabetes If a periodontal patient's A1c is 7.6%, what is their grade? - correct answer-grade c If a periodontal patient's A1c is 6.8%, what is their grade? - correct answer-grade b If a periodontal patient smokes 9 cigarettes/day, what is their grade? - correct answer-grade b If a periodontal patient smokes 15 cigarettes/day, what is their grade? - correct answer-grade c What should be assessed first when a patient returns for re-evaluation after periodontal therapy? - correct answer-tissue inflammation; this will indicate if the irritant is still present When should a re-evaluation be completed following periodontal therpy (SRP)? - correct answer-4-6 weeks What is the most common surgical procedure to reduce PDs? - correct answer-gingivectomy What procedure is done to treat gingival hyperplasia and pseudopocketing? - correct answer-gingivectomy What tissue is initially formed after injury? - correct answer-granulation tissue What is the most common type of healthy bacteria found in the mouth? - correct answer-streptococci bacteria What is the primary function of neutrophils? - correct answer-phagocytosis Which PDL fibers do NOT attach the tooth to the alveolar bone? - correct answer-circular fibers Where are electrons produced in the x-ray machine? - correct answer-cathode What charge does the cathode have? - correct answer-negative What is the focal spot of the x-ray machine made of? - correct answer-tungsten What charge does the anode have? - correct answer-positive Does electromagnetic radiation have mass? - correct answer-no What occurs when an atom gains or loses and electron? - correct answer-ionization What term means the overall darkness or blackness of a film? - correct answer-density What term means how sharply dark and light areas are separated in a radiograph? - correct answer-contrast What affects the contrast of a radiograph? - correct answer-kVp What type of contrast is best for seeing decay? - correct answer-short scale contrast (mostly blacks and whites) What type of contrast is best for seeing bone density? - correct answer-long scale contrast (many shades of gray) What regulates the number of electrons produced in the cathode? - correct answer-milliamperage (mA) What does kVp stand for? - correct answer-kilovoltage peak What does kVp determine? - correct answer-quantity and quality of x-ray beam What occurs when x-rays strike the patient? - correct answer-ionization What cellular change can occur when a patient has x-rays taken? - correct answer-free radical formation In radiology, which occurs more frequently: direct theory or indirect theory? - correct answer-indirect theory According to the direct theory, damage occurs when the radiation hits what? - correct answer-critical areas such as the DNA of a cell According to the indirect theory, damage occurs when the radiation hits what? - correct answer-water in the body forming free radicals What 2 factors does the dose-response curve relate in radiology? - correct answer-damage/response of tissues & amount/dose of radiation What term means the time from radiation exposure to appearance of clinical signs? - correct answer-latent period What term refers to all cells in the body except reproductive cells? - correct answer-somatic cells What term refers to reproductive cells? - correct answer-genetic cells What 3 cells are highly sensitive to radiation? - correct answer-reproductive cells lymphoid system bone marrow What 3 types of cells have a low sensitivity to radiation? - correct answer-nerve tissue skeletal muscle heart What part of the x-ray machine is responsible for filtration? - correct answer-aluminum discs What part of the x-ray machine restricts the size and shape of the x-ray beam? - correct answer-collimator Which reduces radiation to the patient, round or rectangular collimator? - correct answer-rectangular; however is is rarely used due to high errors/technique sensitive Which length PID reduces radiation to patients, long or short? - correct answer-long; short allows the beam to diverge more How far away from the tubehead should the clinician be when taking a radiograph? - correct answer-6 feet What is the maximum permissable dose of radiation for clinicians? - correct answer-per ye