AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM PRACTICE
Certified Professional Coder
American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC)
━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━
Total Questions: 100 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQ)
Testing Time: 4 Hours (240 Minutes) | Open-Book (Approved Code Books)
Format: Computer-Based | AAPC-Approved Testing Centers / Remote Proctoring
Passing Score: 70% (70/100 Correct)
Reporting: Pass/Fail + Domain-Level Diagnostic Feedback
Answer Format: Single-Best-Answer (4 Options: A, B, C, D)
Code Books: CPT® Professional, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS Level II (current year editions)
Content Domain Distribution (AAPC CPC Examination Blueprint)
Domain Percentage Questions
Medical Terminology, Anatomy 10% 10
& Physiology
ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding 20% 20
CPT® Evaluation & 15% 15
Management (E/M)
CPT® Surgery 30% 30
CPT® Medicine / Radiology / 10% 10
Pathology
HCPCS Level II & Modifiers 10% 10
Reimbursement Methodologies 5% 5
& Compliance
TOTAL 100% 100
Page 1
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
EXAM INSTRUCTIONS
• This AAPC CPC Final Practice Examination consists of 100 multiple-choice questions designed to
assess your competency across the seven core domains of medical coding as defined by the AAPC CPC
Certification Examination Blueprint for 2026/2027.
• Each question has four answer options (A, B, C, D). Select the single best answer for each question.
There is no penalty for guessing, so you should answer every question even if you are uncertain.
• The correct answer for each question is displayed in bold purple text (#BC13FE) immediately below
the question options. A detailed rationale written in italic font with a lavender background (#F5EDF9)
follows each question, explaining why the correct answer is best and why the other options are
incorrect.
• The total testing time for the official CPC examination is 4 hours (240 minutes). The exam is open-
book; you may use your current-year CPT® Professional Edition, ICD-10-CM code book, and HCPCS
Level II code book. For realistic practice, try to complete all 100 questions within this time frame,
pacing yourself at approximately 2.4 minutes per question.
• This practice exam is aligned with the AAPC CPC Examination Blueprint: Medical
Terminology/Anatomy (10%), ICD-10-CM (20%), CPT E/M (15%), CPT Surgery (30%), CPT
Medicine/Radiology/Pathology (10%), HCPCS/Modifiers (10%), and Compliance/Reimbursement
(5%).
• Questions include standard MCQ items, scenario-based coding vignettes, guideline interpretation
items, modifier application scenarios, compliance prioritization questions, and documentation
analysis cases reflecting the item types used on the actual CPC examination.
• After completing the exam, review the rationales for all questions — especially those you answered
incorrectly — to identify knowledge gaps and focus your continued study on weaker domains. Pay
particular attention to E/M 2023+ MDM guidelines, ICD-10-CM combination code sequencing, and
modifier -25/-59 application rules.
Page 2
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
Medical Terminology, Anatomy & Physiology (Q1–Q10 | 10%)
──────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
──────────────
1. Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Proximal
D. Distal
Rationale: Medial refers to a position closer to the midline of the body. Lateral (A) means
farther from the midline. Proximal (C) refers to closer to the origin or point of attachment of a
limb. Distal (D) means farther from the origin or point of attachment of a limb.
2. Which anatomical plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?
A. Sagittal plane
B. Transverse plane
C. Coronal (frontal) plane
D. Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The coronal (frontal) plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior
(back) portions. The sagittal plane (A) divides the body into left and right portions. The
transverse plane (B) divides the body into superior and inferior portions. The midsagittal
plane (D) divides the body into equal left and right halves.
3. The integumentary system includes all of the following structures EXCEPT:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
D. Periosteum
Rationale: The periosteum is a fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of bone and
belongs to the musculoskeletal system, not the integumentary system. The epidermis (A),
dermis (B), and hypodermis (C) are all layers of the skin and are components of the
integumentary system.
4. In surgical terminology, what is the difference between an excision and a resection?
A. An excision removes an entire organ; a resection removes only a portion
B. An excision removes a portion of an organ or structure; a resection removes all or
a significant part of an organ or structure
C. There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable
D. An excision is performed endoscopically; a resection is performed through an open approach
Rationale: In CPT surgical terminology, an excision refers to the removal of a portion of a
body structure (e.g., a lesion or part of an organ), while a resection involves the removal of all
or a significant portion of an organ or structure. These terms have distinct meanings and are
not interchangeable (C). The approach (open vs. endoscopic) does not define the difference
between these terms (D).
Page 3
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
5. Which respiratory structure is also known as the voice box and contains the vocal cords?
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi
Rationale: The larynx, commonly called the voice box, contains the vocal cords and is
responsible for sound production. The pharynx (A) is the throat, serving as a shared pathway
for air and food. The trachea (C) is the windpipe that carries air to the bronchi. The bronchi
(D) are the two main branches leading from the trachea into the lungs.
6. The medical term 'endarterectomy' refers to:
A. Surgical removal of the entire artery
B. Surgical removal of plaque from the inner lining of an artery
C. Surgical creation of a new opening in an artery
D. Surgical repair of a ruptured artery
Rationale: Endarterectomy refers to the surgical removal of atheromatous plaque from the
inner lining (endothelium) of an artery. The prefix 'end-' refers to the inner lining, 'arter'
refers to the artery, and '-ectomy' means surgical removal. It does not involve removing the
entire artery (A), creating a new opening (C, which would be an arteriotomy or ostomy), or
repairing a rupture (D, which would be an arteriorrhaphy).
7. The suffix '-scopy' in medical terminology indicates:
A. Surgical removal of an organ
B. Visual examination of a body cavity or organ using a specialized instrument
C. Surgical creation of an opening into a body cavity
D. Suturing or repair of a wound
Rationale: The suffix '-scopy' means visual examination using a specialized instrument (e.g.,
colonoscopy, arthroscopy). Surgical removal (A) is indicated by '-ectomy.' Creation of an
opening (C) is indicated by '-ostomy.' Suturing or repair (D) is indicated by '-rrhaphy.'
8. Which term describes the pathological process of cell death occurring in a localized area
of tissue due to interrupted blood supply?
A. Necrosis
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Hyperplasia
Rationale: Necrosis refers to localized cell death caused by disease, injury, or interrupted
blood supply. Hypertrophy (B) is the enlargement of an organ or tissue due to increased cell
size. Atrophy (C) is the decrease in size of an organ or tissue. Hyperplasia (D) is the increase in
the number of cells in an organ or tissue.
9. Which endocrine gland is responsible for regulating metabolism and is located in the
anterior neck, inferior to the larynx?
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pituitary gland
Page 4
AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM PRACTICE
Certified Professional Coder
American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC)
━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━
Total Questions: 100 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQ)
Testing Time: 4 Hours (240 Minutes) | Open-Book (Approved Code Books)
Format: Computer-Based | AAPC-Approved Testing Centers / Remote Proctoring
Passing Score: 70% (70/100 Correct)
Reporting: Pass/Fail + Domain-Level Diagnostic Feedback
Answer Format: Single-Best-Answer (4 Options: A, B, C, D)
Code Books: CPT® Professional, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS Level II (current year editions)
Content Domain Distribution (AAPC CPC Examination Blueprint)
Domain Percentage Questions
Medical Terminology, Anatomy 10% 10
& Physiology
ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding 20% 20
CPT® Evaluation & 15% 15
Management (E/M)
CPT® Surgery 30% 30
CPT® Medicine / Radiology / 10% 10
Pathology
HCPCS Level II & Modifiers 10% 10
Reimbursement Methodologies 5% 5
& Compliance
TOTAL 100% 100
Page 1
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
EXAM INSTRUCTIONS
• This AAPC CPC Final Practice Examination consists of 100 multiple-choice questions designed to
assess your competency across the seven core domains of medical coding as defined by the AAPC CPC
Certification Examination Blueprint for 2026/2027.
• Each question has four answer options (A, B, C, D). Select the single best answer for each question.
There is no penalty for guessing, so you should answer every question even if you are uncertain.
• The correct answer for each question is displayed in bold purple text (#BC13FE) immediately below
the question options. A detailed rationale written in italic font with a lavender background (#F5EDF9)
follows each question, explaining why the correct answer is best and why the other options are
incorrect.
• The total testing time for the official CPC examination is 4 hours (240 minutes). The exam is open-
book; you may use your current-year CPT® Professional Edition, ICD-10-CM code book, and HCPCS
Level II code book. For realistic practice, try to complete all 100 questions within this time frame,
pacing yourself at approximately 2.4 minutes per question.
• This practice exam is aligned with the AAPC CPC Examination Blueprint: Medical
Terminology/Anatomy (10%), ICD-10-CM (20%), CPT E/M (15%), CPT Surgery (30%), CPT
Medicine/Radiology/Pathology (10%), HCPCS/Modifiers (10%), and Compliance/Reimbursement
(5%).
• Questions include standard MCQ items, scenario-based coding vignettes, guideline interpretation
items, modifier application scenarios, compliance prioritization questions, and documentation
analysis cases reflecting the item types used on the actual CPC examination.
• After completing the exam, review the rationales for all questions — especially those you answered
incorrectly — to identify knowledge gaps and focus your continued study on weaker domains. Pay
particular attention to E/M 2023+ MDM guidelines, ICD-10-CM combination code sequencing, and
modifier -25/-59 application rules.
Page 2
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
Medical Terminology, Anatomy & Physiology (Q1–Q10 | 10%)
──────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
──────────────
1. Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Proximal
D. Distal
Rationale: Medial refers to a position closer to the midline of the body. Lateral (A) means
farther from the midline. Proximal (C) refers to closer to the origin or point of attachment of a
limb. Distal (D) means farther from the origin or point of attachment of a limb.
2. Which anatomical plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?
A. Sagittal plane
B. Transverse plane
C. Coronal (frontal) plane
D. Midsagittal plane
Rationale: The coronal (frontal) plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior
(back) portions. The sagittal plane (A) divides the body into left and right portions. The
transverse plane (B) divides the body into superior and inferior portions. The midsagittal
plane (D) divides the body into equal left and right halves.
3. The integumentary system includes all of the following structures EXCEPT:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
D. Periosteum
Rationale: The periosteum is a fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of bone and
belongs to the musculoskeletal system, not the integumentary system. The epidermis (A),
dermis (B), and hypodermis (C) are all layers of the skin and are components of the
integumentary system.
4. In surgical terminology, what is the difference between an excision and a resection?
A. An excision removes an entire organ; a resection removes only a portion
B. An excision removes a portion of an organ or structure; a resection removes all or
a significant part of an organ or structure
C. There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable
D. An excision is performed endoscopically; a resection is performed through an open approach
Rationale: In CPT surgical terminology, an excision refers to the removal of a portion of a
body structure (e.g., a lesion or part of an organ), while a resection involves the removal of all
or a significant portion of an organ or structure. These terms have distinct meanings and are
not interchangeable (C). The approach (open vs. endoscopic) does not define the difference
between these terms (D).
Page 3
, AAPC CPC Final Exam Practice — 2026/2027
5. Which respiratory structure is also known as the voice box and contains the vocal cords?
A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi
Rationale: The larynx, commonly called the voice box, contains the vocal cords and is
responsible for sound production. The pharynx (A) is the throat, serving as a shared pathway
for air and food. The trachea (C) is the windpipe that carries air to the bronchi. The bronchi
(D) are the two main branches leading from the trachea into the lungs.
6. The medical term 'endarterectomy' refers to:
A. Surgical removal of the entire artery
B. Surgical removal of plaque from the inner lining of an artery
C. Surgical creation of a new opening in an artery
D. Surgical repair of a ruptured artery
Rationale: Endarterectomy refers to the surgical removal of atheromatous plaque from the
inner lining (endothelium) of an artery. The prefix 'end-' refers to the inner lining, 'arter'
refers to the artery, and '-ectomy' means surgical removal. It does not involve removing the
entire artery (A), creating a new opening (C, which would be an arteriotomy or ostomy), or
repairing a rupture (D, which would be an arteriorrhaphy).
7. The suffix '-scopy' in medical terminology indicates:
A. Surgical removal of an organ
B. Visual examination of a body cavity or organ using a specialized instrument
C. Surgical creation of an opening into a body cavity
D. Suturing or repair of a wound
Rationale: The suffix '-scopy' means visual examination using a specialized instrument (e.g.,
colonoscopy, arthroscopy). Surgical removal (A) is indicated by '-ectomy.' Creation of an
opening (C) is indicated by '-ostomy.' Suturing or repair (D) is indicated by '-rrhaphy.'
8. Which term describes the pathological process of cell death occurring in a localized area
of tissue due to interrupted blood supply?
A. Necrosis
B. Hypertrophy
C. Atrophy
D. Hyperplasia
Rationale: Necrosis refers to localized cell death caused by disease, injury, or interrupted
blood supply. Hypertrophy (B) is the enlargement of an organ or tissue due to increased cell
size. Atrophy (C) is the decrease in size of an organ or tissue. Hyperplasia (D) is the increase in
the number of cells in an organ or tissue.
9. Which endocrine gland is responsible for regulating metabolism and is located in the
anterior neck, inferior to the larynx?
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pituitary gland
Page 4
