2026 ATI Medical-Surgical Proctored Exam ||
Complete Exam with 100%Verified Questions &
Answers - Latest Updated Review - Graded A+
Question 1
Question: A nurse in an emergency department is preparing to perform an ocular
irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A. Assess the client's visual acuity prior to irrigation
B. Have the client turn their head toward the unaffected eye
C. Hold the irrigator syringe 3.81 cm (1.5 in) above the eye
D. Perform the irrigation with sterile water for irrigation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sterile water or sterile normal saline is the appropriate irrigation solution for
chemical eye injuries. Assessing visual acuity before irrigation may be delayed in an
emergency. The head should be turned toward the affected eye to prevent contamination
of the unaffected eye. The syringe tip should not be held above the eye; it should be close
to the eye to control flow.
Question 2
Question: A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's via continuous IV
infusion at 200 ml/hr. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 10 drops/ml. How many gtt/min
should the nurse set the IV pump to administer? Round to near whole number.
Correct Answer: 33 gtt/min (not a multiple choice; calculated)
Rationale: Formula: (Volume ml/hr × drop factor) / 60 min = (200 × 10) / 60 = 2000 /
60 = 33.33 → 33 gtt/min.
Question 3
Question: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription
for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates understanding?
A. I can keep my medications for 1 year before replacing it
B. I should lie down when I take this medication
C. I should discontinue this medication if I develop a headache
D. I can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes before seeking medical attention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and can lead to hypotension and dizziness;
lying down helps prevent falls. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 6 months, not 1
1
,year. Headache is a common side effect but does not warrant discontinuation. The
correct regimen is one tablet every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses, then seek emergency care.
Question 4
Question: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client following a
left total hip arthroplasty. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Clean the incision daily with hydrogen peroxide
B. You can cross your legs or ankles when sitting down
C. You should use an incentive spirometer every 8 hours
D. Install a raised toilet seat in your bathroom
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A raised toilet seat helps prevent excessive hip flexion (greater than 90
degrees), which is contraindicated after hip arthroplasty. Hydrogen peroxide is too harsh
for incisions. Crossing legs/ankles is prohibited to prevent dislocation. Incentive
spirometer should be used every 1-2 hours while awake, not every 8 hours.
Question 5
Question: A nurse is planning care for a client following a cardiac catheterization.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Keep the client on bed rest for 24 hours
B. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1 L per day
C. Maintain the client's affected extremity in extension
D. Change the client's dressing every 8 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the affected leg straight (extension) prevents bleeding from the
arterial puncture site. Bed rest is typically 4-6 hours, not 24 hours. Fluids are encouraged,
not limited. Dressing changes are done PRN or per protocol, not routinely every 8 hours.
Question 6
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a lower extremity fracture and a
prescription for crutches. Which client statement indicates adaptation to role change?
A. I will need to have my partner take over shopping for groceries and cooking the meals
for us
B. These crutches will make it impossible to care for my child
C. I feel bad that I have to ask my partner to keep the house clean
D. It's going to be difficult to tell my parents I can't take them to their appointments
anymore
2
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This statement shows acceptance of temporary role change and problem-
solving. The other options express despair, guilt, or difficulty with boundary-setting, not
adaptation.
Question 7
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has gastrointestinal issues. Which
assessment finding indicates dehydration?
A. Pitting, dependent edema
B. Distended jugular veins
C. Increased BP
D. Decreased BP
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dehydration leads to hypovolemia, causing decreased blood pressure. Edema
and distended jugular veins indicate fluid overload. Increased BP is not typical in
dehydration.
Question 8
Question: A nurse is caring for a client with a brainstem contusion who reports thirst
and has urinary output of 4,000 ml over 24 hours. Which IV medication should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Desmopressin
B. Epinephrine
C. Furosemide
D. Nitroprusside
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High urinary output with thirst suggests diabetes insipidus due to decreased
ADH. Desmopressin (synthetic ADH) reduces urine output. Epinephrine is for
anaphylaxis/cardiac arrest. Furosemide is a diuretic. Nitroprusside is for hypertensive
crisis.
Question 9
Question: A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who recently started
therapy with an ACE inhibitor and reports a nagging dry cough. Which response is
appropriate?
A. "Your cough may require that you stop or change your medication"
B. "Increasing your daily fluid intake may eliminate your cough"
3
, C. "Sucking on a lozenge may reduce the frequency of your cough"
D. "Your cough should go away in time"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors and often
requires switching to an ARB. It does not resolve with fluids, lozenges, or time.
Question 10
Question: A nurse is taking an admission history from a client who reports Raynaud's
disease. Which assessment finding is a potential trigger for exacerbations?
A. Eating a strict vegetarian diet
B. A history of herpes zoster
C. Taking amlodipine for hypertension
D. Using a nicotine transdermal patch
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nicotine is a potent vasoconstrictor and triggers Raynaud's exacerbations.
Amlodipine is actually used to treat Raynaud's. Vegetarian diet and herpes zoster are not
triggers.
Question 11
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a central venous access device and notes
the tubing has become disconnected. The client develops dyspnea and tachycardia.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Perform an ECG
B. Obtain ABG values
C. Turn the client to his left side
D. Clamp the catheter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority is to clamp the catheter to prevent air embolism. Turning the
client to the left side (Trendelenburg) is a later intervention to trap air in the right atrium.
Question 12
Question: A nurse is completing an assessment of an older adult client and notes
reddened areas over bony prominences, but the skin is intact. Which intervention should
the nurse include?
A. Turn and reposition the client every 4 hours
B. Apply an occlusive dressing
4
Complete Exam with 100%Verified Questions &
Answers - Latest Updated Review - Graded A+
Question 1
Question: A nurse in an emergency department is preparing to perform an ocular
irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A. Assess the client's visual acuity prior to irrigation
B. Have the client turn their head toward the unaffected eye
C. Hold the irrigator syringe 3.81 cm (1.5 in) above the eye
D. Perform the irrigation with sterile water for irrigation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sterile water or sterile normal saline is the appropriate irrigation solution for
chemical eye injuries. Assessing visual acuity before irrigation may be delayed in an
emergency. The head should be turned toward the affected eye to prevent contamination
of the unaffected eye. The syringe tip should not be held above the eye; it should be close
to the eye to control flow.
Question 2
Question: A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's via continuous IV
infusion at 200 ml/hr. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 10 drops/ml. How many gtt/min
should the nurse set the IV pump to administer? Round to near whole number.
Correct Answer: 33 gtt/min (not a multiple choice; calculated)
Rationale: Formula: (Volume ml/hr × drop factor) / 60 min = (200 × 10) / 60 = 2000 /
60 = 33.33 → 33 gtt/min.
Question 3
Question: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription
for sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates understanding?
A. I can keep my medications for 1 year before replacing it
B. I should lie down when I take this medication
C. I should discontinue this medication if I develop a headache
D. I can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes before seeking medical attention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and can lead to hypotension and dizziness;
lying down helps prevent falls. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 6 months, not 1
1
,year. Headache is a common side effect but does not warrant discontinuation. The
correct regimen is one tablet every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses, then seek emergency care.
Question 4
Question: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older adult client following a
left total hip arthroplasty. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Clean the incision daily with hydrogen peroxide
B. You can cross your legs or ankles when sitting down
C. You should use an incentive spirometer every 8 hours
D. Install a raised toilet seat in your bathroom
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A raised toilet seat helps prevent excessive hip flexion (greater than 90
degrees), which is contraindicated after hip arthroplasty. Hydrogen peroxide is too harsh
for incisions. Crossing legs/ankles is prohibited to prevent dislocation. Incentive
spirometer should be used every 1-2 hours while awake, not every 8 hours.
Question 5
Question: A nurse is planning care for a client following a cardiac catheterization.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Keep the client on bed rest for 24 hours
B. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1 L per day
C. Maintain the client's affected extremity in extension
D. Change the client's dressing every 8 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the affected leg straight (extension) prevents bleeding from the
arterial puncture site. Bed rest is typically 4-6 hours, not 24 hours. Fluids are encouraged,
not limited. Dressing changes are done PRN or per protocol, not routinely every 8 hours.
Question 6
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a lower extremity fracture and a
prescription for crutches. Which client statement indicates adaptation to role change?
A. I will need to have my partner take over shopping for groceries and cooking the meals
for us
B. These crutches will make it impossible to care for my child
C. I feel bad that I have to ask my partner to keep the house clean
D. It's going to be difficult to tell my parents I can't take them to their appointments
anymore
2
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This statement shows acceptance of temporary role change and problem-
solving. The other options express despair, guilt, or difficulty with boundary-setting, not
adaptation.
Question 7
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has gastrointestinal issues. Which
assessment finding indicates dehydration?
A. Pitting, dependent edema
B. Distended jugular veins
C. Increased BP
D. Decreased BP
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dehydration leads to hypovolemia, causing decreased blood pressure. Edema
and distended jugular veins indicate fluid overload. Increased BP is not typical in
dehydration.
Question 8
Question: A nurse is caring for a client with a brainstem contusion who reports thirst
and has urinary output of 4,000 ml over 24 hours. Which IV medication should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Desmopressin
B. Epinephrine
C. Furosemide
D. Nitroprusside
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High urinary output with thirst suggests diabetes insipidus due to decreased
ADH. Desmopressin (synthetic ADH) reduces urine output. Epinephrine is for
anaphylaxis/cardiac arrest. Furosemide is a diuretic. Nitroprusside is for hypertensive
crisis.
Question 9
Question: A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who recently started
therapy with an ACE inhibitor and reports a nagging dry cough. Which response is
appropriate?
A. "Your cough may require that you stop or change your medication"
B. "Increasing your daily fluid intake may eliminate your cough"
3
, C. "Sucking on a lozenge may reduce the frequency of your cough"
D. "Your cough should go away in time"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors and often
requires switching to an ARB. It does not resolve with fluids, lozenges, or time.
Question 10
Question: A nurse is taking an admission history from a client who reports Raynaud's
disease. Which assessment finding is a potential trigger for exacerbations?
A. Eating a strict vegetarian diet
B. A history of herpes zoster
C. Taking amlodipine for hypertension
D. Using a nicotine transdermal patch
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nicotine is a potent vasoconstrictor and triggers Raynaud's exacerbations.
Amlodipine is actually used to treat Raynaud's. Vegetarian diet and herpes zoster are not
triggers.
Question 11
Question: A nurse is caring for a client who has a central venous access device and notes
the tubing has become disconnected. The client develops dyspnea and tachycardia.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Perform an ECG
B. Obtain ABG values
C. Turn the client to his left side
D. Clamp the catheter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority is to clamp the catheter to prevent air embolism. Turning the
client to the left side (Trendelenburg) is a later intervention to trap air in the right atrium.
Question 12
Question: A nurse is completing an assessment of an older adult client and notes
reddened areas over bony prominences, but the skin is intact. Which intervention should
the nurse include?
A. Turn and reposition the client every 4 hours
B. Apply an occlusive dressing
4
