NSG 304 EXAM 1 REVIEW QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

NSG 304 EXAM 1 REVIEW QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 A patient is admitted to the cardiac unit with a heart rate of 55 beats per minute, and an ECG strip shows sinus bradycardia. The nurse should prioritize which intervention? A) Administer an antiarrhythmic medication. B) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion. C) Provide patient education about bradycardia. D) Start oxygen therapy immediately. - Answers Answer and Rationale: C) Provide patient education about bradycardia. Rationale: Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, typically below 60 beats per minute. In sinus bradycardia without symptoms, the priority is patient education rather than immediate intervention. The patient should be educated about bradycardia, its potential causes, and signs to watch for. If the patient becomes symptomatic or the heart rate drops significantly, further interventions may be necessary. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation (AFib) is admitted to the cardiac unit. The nurse knows that pharmacologic management for AFib typically includes: A) Administering beta blockers. B) Performing electrical cardioversion. C) Initiating thrombolytic therapy. D) Starting intravenous magnesium. - Answers Answer and Rationale: A) Administering beta blockers. Rationale: Pharmacologic management of atrial fibrillation often involves medications to control the heart rate and rhythm. Beta blockers are commonly used to slow the heart rate in AFib, helping to reduce symptoms and prevent complications like stroke. Other interventions, such as electrical cardioversion, may be considered in certain cases, but beta blockers are a common initial approach. In general cardiac pharmacology, beta blockers are often prescribed for various cardiac conditions. Which of the following statements accurately describes the action of beta blockers? A) They increase heart rate and contractility. B) They dilate coronary arteries. C) They reduce blood pressure by increasing peripheral resistance. D) They block the effects of adrenaline on the heart. - Answers Answer and Rationale: D) They block the effects of adrenaline on the heart. Rationale: Beta blockers, as the name suggests, block the effects of adrenaline (epinephrine) on the heart. This results in a decreased heart rate, reduced contractility, and lowered blood pressure. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias by reducing the workload on the heart. A nurse is providing education to a patient who is scheduled to undergo a valve replacement surgery. The patient asks the nurse about the types of valve replacements. Which response by the nurse is accurate? A) "There is only one type of valve replacement, and it's made of synthetic materials." B) "There are two types of valve replacements: mechanical and bioprosthetic (tissue) valves." C) "Valve replacements are classified into three types: mechanical, biological, and natural." D) "Valve replacements come in four different types: metal, plastic, tissue, and ceramic." - Answers Answer: B) "There are two types of valve replacements: mechanical and bioprosthetic (tissue) valves." Rationale: Valve replacements can be mechanical (usually made of metal or plastic) or bioprosthetic (tissue valves, often from pigs or cows). This information is essential for patients to understand the options and potential differences in valve replacement types. A nurse is assessing a patient with mitral stenosis. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of this condition? A) Chest pain radiating to the left arm B) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea C) Hypertension with severe headache D) Irregular heart rhythm with palpitations - Answers Answer: B) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea Rationale: Mitral stenosis is characterized by the narrowing of the mitral valve, which impedes blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. This can lead to symptoms such as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is sudden breathlessness that occurs at night when the patient is lying flat. Which of the following routes is the primary mode of entry for bacteria causing infective endocarditis? a) Direct inoculation through open wounds b) Inhalation of contaminated air c) Hematogenous spread from other infections d) Ingestion of contaminated food - Answers Answer: c) Hematogenous spread from other infections Rationale: Infective endocarditis typically results from the hematogenous spread of bacteria from other infections in the body. 2. What nursing intervention is essential for the prevention of infective endocarditis in high-risk individuals? a) Administering antibiotics before dental procedures b) Encouraging a high-protein diet c) Promoting vigorous physical exercise d) Providing emotional support - Answers Answer: a) Administering antibiotics before dental procedures Rationale: Antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures is recommended for individuals at high risk of infective endocarditis to prevent bacterial entry into the bloodstream during dental work. 3. Which clinical manifestation is commonly associated with infective endocarditis? a) Joint pain and swelling b) Visual disturbances c) Persistent low-grade fever d) Profuse diarrhea - Answers Answer: c) Persistent low-grade fever Rationale: A persistent low-grade fever is a common clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis due to the body's response to the ongoing infection. 4. Pericarditis most commonly occurs secondary to: a) Direct trauma to the chest b) Bacterial spread through the bloodstream c) Viral respiratory infections d) Excessive alcohol consumption - Answers Answer: c) Viral respiratory infections Rationale: Pericarditis often develops as a result of viral respiratory infections, such as Coxsackie virus. What nursing advice should be given to patients to help prevent pericarditis? a) Avoid strenuous physical activity b) Receive the yearly influenza vaccine c) Consume a diet high in saturated fats d) Decrease fluid intake - Answers Answer: b) Receive the yearly influenza vaccine Rationale: The yearly influenza vaccine can help prevent viral infections that may lead to pericarditis. Which symptom is a common clinical manifestation of pericarditis? a) Cyanosis of the fingertips b) Severe abdominal pain c) Sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breaths d) Visual disturbances - Answers Answer: c) Sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breaths Rationale: Sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breaths is a hallmark symptom of pericarditis. Rheumatic carditis is primarily associated with which type of infection? a) Viral respiratory infections b) Bacterial throat infections (such as streptococcal) c) Fungal skin infections d) Parasitic infections - Answers Answer: b) Bacterial throat infections (such as streptococcal) Rationale: Rheumatic carditis often follows untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal throat infections (strep throat). What nursing education should be provided to prevent rheumatic carditis in at-risk populations? a) Hand hygiene and respiratory etiquette b) Encouraging a sedentary lifestyle c) Limiting exposure to animals d) Increasing dietary salt intake - Answers Answer: a) Hand hygiene and respiratory etiquette Rationale: Promoting good hand hygiene and respiratory etiquette can help prevent the spread of streptococcal infections, reducing the risk of rheumatic carditis. Which clinical manifestation is commonly observed in patients with rheumatic carditis? a) Joint pain and swelling b) Severe headache and nausea c) Elevation of blood pressure d) Intermittent hearing loss - Answers Answer: a) Joint pain and swelling Rationale: Joint pain and swelling are common clinical manifestations of rheumatic carditis, often associated with rheumatic fever. A 62-year-old male patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. The nurse suspects Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS). What is the immediate priority nursing action? A) Administer nitroglycerin to relieve chest pain. B) Obtain a detailed medical history from the patient. C) Place the patient in a supine position and administer oxygen. D) Start an intravenous line and initiate thrombolytic therapy. - Answers Answer and Rationale: C) Place the patient in a supine position and administer oxygen. Rationale: The immediate priority in ACS is to improve oxygenation and relieve myocardial demand. Placing the patient in a supine position and administering oxygen helps improve oxygen supply to the myocardium. Nitroglycerin and thrombolytic therapy may be indicated but should be ordered by a healthcare provider after assessing the patient. Obtaining a detailed history is important but not the immediate priority. A 58-year-old female patient complains of intermittent chest pain that occurs during periods of exertion and is relieved with rest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when assessing this patient's chest pain? A) Document the pain as typical angina. B) Ask the patient about her stress levels. C) Administer aspirin and assess for relief. D) Prepare for immediate angioplasty. - Answers Answer and Rationale: A) Document the pain as typical angina. Rationale: The patient's description of chest pain during exertion and relief with rest is consistent with typical angina. It is important to document the characteristics of chest pain accurately. Asking about stress levels is a valid assessment but not the first priority. Administering aspirin is appropriate but should follow a more thorough assessment, and immediate angioplasty is not indicated based solely on the patient's description of symptoms. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which clinical manifestation is most indicative of left-sided heart failure? A) Peripheral edema B) Jugular vein distention C) Hepatomegaly D) Crackles in the lungs - Answers Answer: D) Crackles in the lungs Rationale: Crackles in the lungs (rales) are a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. When the left ventricle fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion and the development of crackles during auscultation. Peripheral edema, jugular vein distention, and hepatomegaly are more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Drag and drop the appropriate diagnostic lab or electrolyte imbalance next to its associated finding in a patient with heart failure. - Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) ________ - Potassium (K+) ________ - Sodium (Na+) ________ - Creatinine ________ Findings: A) Elevated in heart failure B) Increased with dehydration C) Decreased in heart failure D) Elevated in renal dysfunction - Answers - Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) A) Elevated in heart failure - Potassium (K+) C) Decreased in heart failure - Sodium (Na+) B) Increased with dehydration - Creatinine D) Elevated in renal dysfunction Rationale: - BNP is elevated in heart failure and serves as a biomarker for its diagnosis. - Potassium (K+) levels are typically decreased in heart failure due to the use of diuretics, but can increase with dehydration. - Sodium (Na+) levels can be elevated in dehydration and may be affected by medications. - Creatinine levels may be elevated in renal dysfunction, which can occur as a complication of heart failure. The nurse is providing education to a client with heart failure who has been prescribed a loop diuretic. What should the nurse instruct the client to monitor while taking this medication? A) Weight daily B) Blood pressure weekly C) Blood glucose levels daily D) Dietary sodium intake monthly - Answers Answer: A) Weight daily Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid retention. Clients should monitor their weight daily and report any sudden increases, as weight gain can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. Blood pressure, blood glucose levels, and dietary sodium intake are important but are not specific to monitoring loop diuretic therapy. The nurse is providing discharge education to a client with heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching about managing the disease process at home? A) "I will weigh myself every morning at the same time." B) "I will limit my fluid intake to 2 liters per day." C) "I will call my doctor if I experience sudden weight gain." D) "I can continue to eat fast food occasionally if I avoid fries." - Answers Answer: D) "I can continue to eat fast food occasionally if I avoid fries."