Chamberlain University
LANIF • 242 SOIB
★ ★
C College of Nursing & Health Professions
J O U R N E Y T O E X T R A O R D I N A R Y CO M PA S S I O N AT E C A R E
EST. 1889
BIOS 242 — Final Examination
CO M P R E H E N S I V E R E V I E W · I M M U N O LO G Y, V I R O LO G Y, B A C T E R I O LO G Y, M YCO LO G Y & PA R A S I TO LO G Y
INSTITUTION Chamberlain University COURSE CODE BIOS 242
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) ACADEMIC YEAR
EXAM TITLE Final Comprehensive Examination TOTAL QUESTIONS 25 Questions
COURSE TITLE Fundamentals of Microbiology FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the Single Best Answer
FINAL EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless otherwise instructed.
▸ This comprehensive final covers immunology, virology, bacteriology, mycology, and parasitology.
▸ All content reflects BIOS 242 learning objectives across the entire course.
▸ Correct answers and detailed rationales appear below each question for exam preparation purposes.
▸ Pay careful attention to antibody classes, viral characteristics, bacterial virulence factors, and fungal/parasitic diseases.
SECTION I — IMMUNOLOGY, VIROLOGY, BACTERIOLOGY, MYCOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY Questions 1 – 25
1. The five classes of immunoglobulins (antibodies) have distinct characteristics. Which statement correctly describes IgM and IgG?
A. IgM is the most common and longest-lasting antibody; IgG is the first antibody produced
B. IgM is the first antibody produced (pentamer, 10 binding sites); IgG is the most common and longest-lasting antibody (monomer, crosses placenta)
C. Both IgM and IgG have identical functions and timing
D. IgM is associated with body secretions; IgG is involved in allergies
CORRECT ANSWER B — IgM: first antibody produced, pentamer; IgG: most common, longest-lasting, crosses placenta
RATIONALE IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen — it is a pentamer with 10 antigen-binding sites and does NOT cross the placenta. IgG is the most
abundant antibody (~80% of serum immunoglobulins), provides long-term immunity and memory, is a monomer, and is the ONLY antibody that can cross the
placenta. IgA is associated with body secretions (saliva, tears, breast milk). IgE is involved in allergies and parasitic infections. IgD serves as a B cell receptor. The
non-specific lines of defense include skin, mucous membranes, complement, inflammation, and fever. Specific defenses include antibodies.
2. The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers. Which of the following protects the eye from microbial invasion?
A. Sebum from oil glands
B. Lysozyme in tears — an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls
C. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
CORRECT ANSWER B — Lysozyme in tears — breaks down bacterial cell walls (peptidoglycan)
RATIONALE Lysozyme is an antimicrobial enzyme found in tears, saliva, and other body secretions. It cleaves the β-1,4-glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan, destroying bacterial
cell walls. The skin protects through shedding (desquamation) and oil glands (sebum). Mucous membranes line the respiratory, digestive, urinary, and
reproductive systems. Microbial antagonism occurs when normal microbiota use up available resources, reducing the ability of arriving pathogens to colonize. The
four signs of inflammation are redness, heat, swelling, and pain. The complement cascade is a set of serum proteins that triggers inflammation, fever, and lysis of
foreign cells.
3. Innate immune cells and processes include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Chemotaxis — cell movement in response to chemical stimulus
B. Opsonization — coating pathogens with opsonins to enhance phagocytosis
C. Diapedesis — leukocytes leaving blood vessels by squeezing between endothelial cells
D. Antibody production — B cells producing specific immunoglobulins
CORRECT ANSWER D — Antibody production by B cells is adaptive (specific) immunity, not innate
RATIONALE Innate immune processes: Chemotaxis — cell movement toward chemical signals (e.g., from damaged tissue or microbes). Opsonization — coating pathogens with
opsonins (antibodies, complement proteins) making them more vulnerable to phagocytes. Diapedesis (extravasation) — leukocytes leaving blood vessels by
squeezing between endothelial cells. Margination — leukocytes sticking to blood vessel walls at the site of infection. Antibody production is an adaptive (specific)
immune function performed by B cells. Eosinophils are granulocytes that increase in number during parasitic infections. Macrophages are mature monocytes that
phagocytose bacteria, fungi, and debris.
, 4. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and natural killer (NK) lymphocytes are components of which immune system?
A. Adaptive immunity — they produce specific antibodies
B. Innate immunity — TLRs are integral membrane proteins that bind microbial chemicals as early warning; NK cells secrete toxins onto virally infected and neoplastic
cells
C. Humoral immunity — they are involved in B cell activation only
D. Cell-mediated immunity — they function exclusively through T cells
CORRECT ANSWER B — Innate immunity: TLRs are early warning receptors; NK cells kill virus-infected and cancer cells
RATIONALE Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are integral membrane proteins on innate immune cells that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) — they act as an
early warning system. Natural killer (NK) lymphocytes are innate defensive leukocytes that secrete toxins (perforins and granzymes) onto the surface of virally
infected cells and neoplastic (cancer) cells without prior sensitization. The humoral immune response activates B cells to produce antibodies against specific
pathogens. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) is found in the respiratory and digestive tracts. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens determine
tissue compatibility.
5. CD4 molecules bind to MHC-II antigens. Which cells express MHC-II and present antigens to CD4+ T helper cells?
A. All nucleated cells in the body
B. Professional antigen-presenting cells — dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
C. Red blood cells only
D. Only neurons and muscle cells
CORRECT ANSWER B — Professional antigen-presenting cells: dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
RATIONALE MHC-II molecules are found primarily on professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs): dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. These cells process exogenous
antigens and present peptide fragments on MHC-II to CD4+ T helper cells. MHC-I molecules are found on all nucleated cells and present endogenous antigens to
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. Acquired immunity is immunity developed during life either naturally (infection) or through vaccination. The spleen is the immunologic
filter of the blood. Lymph nodes filter lymph. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature (fever).
6. Type I and Type IV hypersensitivity reactions differ in their mechanisms. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I — delayed/cell-mediated involving T cells; Type IV — immediate involving IgE and histamine release
B. Type I — immediate hypersensitivity involving IgE, mast cells, and histamine release (localized or systemic); Type IV — delayed/cell-mediated hypersensitivity involving
antigen-presenting cells and T cells
C. Both types are identical in mechanism and timing
D. Type I involves B cells only; Type IV involves neutrophils only
CORRECT ANSWER B — Type I: immediate, IgE/mast cells/histamine; Type IV: delayed, T cell-mediated
RATIONALE Type I hypersensitivity (immediate) — localized or systemic reactions involving IgE antibodies bound to mast cells and basophils; antigen exposure triggers
histamine release and other inflammatory mediators (anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis, asthma). Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed, cell-mediated) — results from
interaction of antigen with antigen-presenting cells and sensitized T cells; takes 24–72 hours to develop (contact dermatitis, tuberculin reaction, graft rejection).
Signs and symptoms of lupus (autoimmune Type III hypersensitivity): fatigue, fever, butterfly-shaped rash on face, joint problems, renal involvement.
7. Which virus causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease and herpangina?
A. Measles virus — causes Koplik spots and rash
B. Coxsackie A virus — produces lesions and fever lasting days to weeks
C. Parvovirus B19 — causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
D. Mumps virus — causes parotitis
CORRECT ANSWER B — Coxsackie A virus causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease and herpangina
RATIONALE Coxsackie A virus (enterovirus) causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease (painful vesicles in mouth, on hands and feet) and herpangina (vesicular lesions in the
posterior oropharynx resembling herpes lesions). Measles (rubeola) is spread by respiratory droplets with Koplik spots appearing in the mouth. Parvovirus B19
causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) — "slapped cheek" rash, the only human pathogen with ssDNA genome. Mumps causes parotitis
(inflammation/enlargement of parotid glands). SARS is caused by a coronavirus. Influenza is caused by orthomyxovirus types A and B via inhalation.
8. Which virus is the causative agent of the "kissing disease" (infectious mononucleosis)?
A. Human Herpesvirus 4 (Epstein-Barr virus) — causes mononucleosis with large B lymphocytes and atypical nuclei
B. Human Herpesvirus 5 (Cytomegalovirus) — causes abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions
C. Adenoviridae — causes pink eye (conjunctivitis)
D. Papillomavirus — causes condylomata acuminata (genital warts)
CORRECT ANSWER A — Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) causes infectious mononucleosis ("kissing disease")
RATIONALE Epstein-Barr virus (Human Herpesvirus 4) causes infectious mononucleosis — characterized by large B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei, neutropenia, fatigue, sore
throat, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. It spreads through saliva ("kissing disease"). Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5) is one of the more common human
infections, spread through bodily secretions and sexual contact; may be teratogenic; produces abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions. Adenoviruses
contain dsDNA, cause the common cold and pink eye (conjunctivitis), spread via respiratory droplets. Papillomaviruses cause warts and condylomata acuminata
(genital warts). Parvoviridae causes erythema infectiosum.
LANIF • 242 SOIB
★ ★
C College of Nursing & Health Professions
J O U R N E Y T O E X T R A O R D I N A R Y CO M PA S S I O N AT E C A R E
EST. 1889
BIOS 242 — Final Examination
CO M P R E H E N S I V E R E V I E W · I M M U N O LO G Y, V I R O LO G Y, B A C T E R I O LO G Y, M YCO LO G Y & PA R A S I TO LO G Y
INSTITUTION Chamberlain University COURSE CODE BIOS 242
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) ACADEMIC YEAR
EXAM TITLE Final Comprehensive Examination TOTAL QUESTIONS 25 Questions
COURSE TITLE Fundamentals of Microbiology FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the Single Best Answer
FINAL EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless otherwise instructed.
▸ This comprehensive final covers immunology, virology, bacteriology, mycology, and parasitology.
▸ All content reflects BIOS 242 learning objectives across the entire course.
▸ Correct answers and detailed rationales appear below each question for exam preparation purposes.
▸ Pay careful attention to antibody classes, viral characteristics, bacterial virulence factors, and fungal/parasitic diseases.
SECTION I — IMMUNOLOGY, VIROLOGY, BACTERIOLOGY, MYCOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY Questions 1 – 25
1. The five classes of immunoglobulins (antibodies) have distinct characteristics. Which statement correctly describes IgM and IgG?
A. IgM is the most common and longest-lasting antibody; IgG is the first antibody produced
B. IgM is the first antibody produced (pentamer, 10 binding sites); IgG is the most common and longest-lasting antibody (monomer, crosses placenta)
C. Both IgM and IgG have identical functions and timing
D. IgM is associated with body secretions; IgG is involved in allergies
CORRECT ANSWER B — IgM: first antibody produced, pentamer; IgG: most common, longest-lasting, crosses placenta
RATIONALE IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen — it is a pentamer with 10 antigen-binding sites and does NOT cross the placenta. IgG is the most
abundant antibody (~80% of serum immunoglobulins), provides long-term immunity and memory, is a monomer, and is the ONLY antibody that can cross the
placenta. IgA is associated with body secretions (saliva, tears, breast milk). IgE is involved in allergies and parasitic infections. IgD serves as a B cell receptor. The
non-specific lines of defense include skin, mucous membranes, complement, inflammation, and fever. Specific defenses include antibodies.
2. The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers. Which of the following protects the eye from microbial invasion?
A. Sebum from oil glands
B. Lysozyme in tears — an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls
C. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
D. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
CORRECT ANSWER B — Lysozyme in tears — breaks down bacterial cell walls (peptidoglycan)
RATIONALE Lysozyme is an antimicrobial enzyme found in tears, saliva, and other body secretions. It cleaves the β-1,4-glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan, destroying bacterial
cell walls. The skin protects through shedding (desquamation) and oil glands (sebum). Mucous membranes line the respiratory, digestive, urinary, and
reproductive systems. Microbial antagonism occurs when normal microbiota use up available resources, reducing the ability of arriving pathogens to colonize. The
four signs of inflammation are redness, heat, swelling, and pain. The complement cascade is a set of serum proteins that triggers inflammation, fever, and lysis of
foreign cells.
3. Innate immune cells and processes include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Chemotaxis — cell movement in response to chemical stimulus
B. Opsonization — coating pathogens with opsonins to enhance phagocytosis
C. Diapedesis — leukocytes leaving blood vessels by squeezing between endothelial cells
D. Antibody production — B cells producing specific immunoglobulins
CORRECT ANSWER D — Antibody production by B cells is adaptive (specific) immunity, not innate
RATIONALE Innate immune processes: Chemotaxis — cell movement toward chemical signals (e.g., from damaged tissue or microbes). Opsonization — coating pathogens with
opsonins (antibodies, complement proteins) making them more vulnerable to phagocytes. Diapedesis (extravasation) — leukocytes leaving blood vessels by
squeezing between endothelial cells. Margination — leukocytes sticking to blood vessel walls at the site of infection. Antibody production is an adaptive (specific)
immune function performed by B cells. Eosinophils are granulocytes that increase in number during parasitic infections. Macrophages are mature monocytes that
phagocytose bacteria, fungi, and debris.
, 4. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and natural killer (NK) lymphocytes are components of which immune system?
A. Adaptive immunity — they produce specific antibodies
B. Innate immunity — TLRs are integral membrane proteins that bind microbial chemicals as early warning; NK cells secrete toxins onto virally infected and neoplastic
cells
C. Humoral immunity — they are involved in B cell activation only
D. Cell-mediated immunity — they function exclusively through T cells
CORRECT ANSWER B — Innate immunity: TLRs are early warning receptors; NK cells kill virus-infected and cancer cells
RATIONALE Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are integral membrane proteins on innate immune cells that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) — they act as an
early warning system. Natural killer (NK) lymphocytes are innate defensive leukocytes that secrete toxins (perforins and granzymes) onto the surface of virally
infected cells and neoplastic (cancer) cells without prior sensitization. The humoral immune response activates B cells to produce antibodies against specific
pathogens. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) is found in the respiratory and digestive tracts. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens determine
tissue compatibility.
5. CD4 molecules bind to MHC-II antigens. Which cells express MHC-II and present antigens to CD4+ T helper cells?
A. All nucleated cells in the body
B. Professional antigen-presenting cells — dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
C. Red blood cells only
D. Only neurons and muscle cells
CORRECT ANSWER B — Professional antigen-presenting cells: dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
RATIONALE MHC-II molecules are found primarily on professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs): dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. These cells process exogenous
antigens and present peptide fragments on MHC-II to CD4+ T helper cells. MHC-I molecules are found on all nucleated cells and present endogenous antigens to
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. Acquired immunity is immunity developed during life either naturally (infection) or through vaccination. The spleen is the immunologic
filter of the blood. Lymph nodes filter lymph. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature (fever).
6. Type I and Type IV hypersensitivity reactions differ in their mechanisms. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I — delayed/cell-mediated involving T cells; Type IV — immediate involving IgE and histamine release
B. Type I — immediate hypersensitivity involving IgE, mast cells, and histamine release (localized or systemic); Type IV — delayed/cell-mediated hypersensitivity involving
antigen-presenting cells and T cells
C. Both types are identical in mechanism and timing
D. Type I involves B cells only; Type IV involves neutrophils only
CORRECT ANSWER B — Type I: immediate, IgE/mast cells/histamine; Type IV: delayed, T cell-mediated
RATIONALE Type I hypersensitivity (immediate) — localized or systemic reactions involving IgE antibodies bound to mast cells and basophils; antigen exposure triggers
histamine release and other inflammatory mediators (anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis, asthma). Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed, cell-mediated) — results from
interaction of antigen with antigen-presenting cells and sensitized T cells; takes 24–72 hours to develop (contact dermatitis, tuberculin reaction, graft rejection).
Signs and symptoms of lupus (autoimmune Type III hypersensitivity): fatigue, fever, butterfly-shaped rash on face, joint problems, renal involvement.
7. Which virus causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease and herpangina?
A. Measles virus — causes Koplik spots and rash
B. Coxsackie A virus — produces lesions and fever lasting days to weeks
C. Parvovirus B19 — causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
D. Mumps virus — causes parotitis
CORRECT ANSWER B — Coxsackie A virus causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease and herpangina
RATIONALE Coxsackie A virus (enterovirus) causes Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease (painful vesicles in mouth, on hands and feet) and herpangina (vesicular lesions in the
posterior oropharynx resembling herpes lesions). Measles (rubeola) is spread by respiratory droplets with Koplik spots appearing in the mouth. Parvovirus B19
causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) — "slapped cheek" rash, the only human pathogen with ssDNA genome. Mumps causes parotitis
(inflammation/enlargement of parotid glands). SARS is caused by a coronavirus. Influenza is caused by orthomyxovirus types A and B via inhalation.
8. Which virus is the causative agent of the "kissing disease" (infectious mononucleosis)?
A. Human Herpesvirus 4 (Epstein-Barr virus) — causes mononucleosis with large B lymphocytes and atypical nuclei
B. Human Herpesvirus 5 (Cytomegalovirus) — causes abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions
C. Adenoviridae — causes pink eye (conjunctivitis)
D. Papillomavirus — causes condylomata acuminata (genital warts)
CORRECT ANSWER A — Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) causes infectious mononucleosis ("kissing disease")
RATIONALE Epstein-Barr virus (Human Herpesvirus 4) causes infectious mononucleosis — characterized by large B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei, neutropenia, fatigue, sore
throat, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. It spreads through saliva ("kissing disease"). Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5) is one of the more common human
infections, spread through bodily secretions and sexual contact; may be teratogenic; produces abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions. Adenoviruses
contain dsDNA, cause the common cold and pink eye (conjunctivitis), spread via respiratory droplets. Papillomaviruses cause warts and condylomata acuminata
(genital warts). Parvoviridae causes erythema infectiosum.
