NR569 DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS IN ACUTE
CARE MIDTERM | QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST 2025/2026 FINAL | GRADED
A+ – CHAMBERLAIN
1. Comprehensive Patient Assessment:
ANSWER: - Appropriate for new patients in the office or hospital.
• Provides fundamental and personalized knowledge about patient.
• Strengthens the clinician-patient relationship.
• Helps identify or rule out physical causes related to patient concerns.
• Provides a baseline for future assessments.
• Creates a platform for health promotion through education and counseling.
• Develops proficiency in the skills of physical assessment.
2. Focused Patient Assessment:
ANSWER: - Appropriate for established patients, especially during routine
or urgent care visits.
• Addresses focused concerns or symptoms.
• Assesses symptoms restricted to a specific body system.
• Applies examination methods relevant to assessing the concern or problem
as thoroughly and carefully as possible.
,3. Subjective Information:
ANSWER: - The clinical record from the Chief Complaint (CC) through the
Review of Systems (ROS) is considered SUBJECTIVE information.
• Includes symptoms which are health concerns the patient tells the provider.
• Includes feelings, perceptions, and concerns obtained from the clinical
interview.
• Examples: complaints of sore throat, headache, or pain.
4. Objective Information:
ANSWER: - All physical examination, laboratory information and test data
are objective data.
5. Components of Comprehensive Adult Health History:
ANSWER: - Initial information (Identifying patient
information/source/reliability)
• Chief Complaint(s)
• History of Present Illness
• Past Medical History
• Family History
• Personal/Social History
• Review of Systems (ROS)
6. SNAPS method:
ANSWER: - Summarize the history and findings.
• Narrow the differential diagnosis to two to three possibilities.
, • Analyze the differential by comparing and contrasting the possibilities.
• Probe the preceptor by asking questions about alternative approaches or
uncertainties.
• Plan the management of the patient's health issues.
• Select an issue from the case for self-directed learning.
7. Creating a Differential Diagnosis – "Hoofbeats = Horses NOT Zebras":
ANSWER: - The differential diagnosis process involves using clinical
reasoning to distinguish between two or more conditions that share similar
signs and symptoms. Based on the CC the NP gathers information through
PMH (subjective data) and physical examination (objective data) to generate
a list of possible causes, prioritizing common conditions over rare ones
unless the presentation is atypical.
8. A 58-year-old male presents with acute onset of tearing chest pain radiating
to the back, blood pressure 160/90 in right arm and 110/70 in left arm. The
most likely diagnosis is:
ANSWER: Aortic dissection
9. A 72-year-old female with history of hypertension presents with sudden,
severe headache described as "thunderclap" followed by nausea and
photophobia. Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia. The most likely
diagnosis is:
ANSWER: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
10.A 45-year-old male with no significant history presents with acute dyspnea,
pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis after a long flight. Oxygen saturation
CARE MIDTERM | QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS | LATEST 2025/2026 FINAL | GRADED
A+ – CHAMBERLAIN
1. Comprehensive Patient Assessment:
ANSWER: - Appropriate for new patients in the office or hospital.
• Provides fundamental and personalized knowledge about patient.
• Strengthens the clinician-patient relationship.
• Helps identify or rule out physical causes related to patient concerns.
• Provides a baseline for future assessments.
• Creates a platform for health promotion through education and counseling.
• Develops proficiency in the skills of physical assessment.
2. Focused Patient Assessment:
ANSWER: - Appropriate for established patients, especially during routine
or urgent care visits.
• Addresses focused concerns or symptoms.
• Assesses symptoms restricted to a specific body system.
• Applies examination methods relevant to assessing the concern or problem
as thoroughly and carefully as possible.
,3. Subjective Information:
ANSWER: - The clinical record from the Chief Complaint (CC) through the
Review of Systems (ROS) is considered SUBJECTIVE information.
• Includes symptoms which are health concerns the patient tells the provider.
• Includes feelings, perceptions, and concerns obtained from the clinical
interview.
• Examples: complaints of sore throat, headache, or pain.
4. Objective Information:
ANSWER: - All physical examination, laboratory information and test data
are objective data.
5. Components of Comprehensive Adult Health History:
ANSWER: - Initial information (Identifying patient
information/source/reliability)
• Chief Complaint(s)
• History of Present Illness
• Past Medical History
• Family History
• Personal/Social History
• Review of Systems (ROS)
6. SNAPS method:
ANSWER: - Summarize the history and findings.
• Narrow the differential diagnosis to two to three possibilities.
, • Analyze the differential by comparing and contrasting the possibilities.
• Probe the preceptor by asking questions about alternative approaches or
uncertainties.
• Plan the management of the patient's health issues.
• Select an issue from the case for self-directed learning.
7. Creating a Differential Diagnosis – "Hoofbeats = Horses NOT Zebras":
ANSWER: - The differential diagnosis process involves using clinical
reasoning to distinguish between two or more conditions that share similar
signs and symptoms. Based on the CC the NP gathers information through
PMH (subjective data) and physical examination (objective data) to generate
a list of possible causes, prioritizing common conditions over rare ones
unless the presentation is atypical.
8. A 58-year-old male presents with acute onset of tearing chest pain radiating
to the back, blood pressure 160/90 in right arm and 110/70 in left arm. The
most likely diagnosis is:
ANSWER: Aortic dissection
9. A 72-year-old female with history of hypertension presents with sudden,
severe headache described as "thunderclap" followed by nausea and
photophobia. Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia. The most likely
diagnosis is:
ANSWER: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
10.A 45-year-old male with no significant history presents with acute dyspnea,
pleuritic chest pain, and hemoptysis after a long flight. Oxygen saturation
