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M/B Final Exam Nclex Practice Questions Exam Newest
2026 Exam Latest Version Solved Questions & Answers
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question analysis techniques needed to pass the NCLEX on the first attempt.My
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• Understanding NCLEX-style questions
• Test-taking strategies
• Priority and delegation questions
• Pharmacology simplification
• SATA question techniques
• Confidence building and time management
Whether you are repeating the exam or preparing for your first try, I will guide you
step-by-step until you feel fully ready.
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M/B Final exam nclex practice questions
A 36-week pregnant client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. Which result
would indicate fetal lung maturity?
A. Lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
B. Positive Nitrazine test
C. Negative contraction stress test
D. Bilirubin level decreased in amniotic fluid
, Page 2 of 39
Answer: A
Rationale: An L/S ratio ≥ 2:1 indicates adequate surfactant and fetal lung maturity.
Nitrazine tests assess for rupture of membranes, contraction stress tests assess
placental function, and bilirubin in amniotic fluid assesses for hemolytic disease.
Which findings would alert the nurse to postpartum psychosis? SATA
A. Delusions or hallucinations
B. Tearfulness and fatigue resolving within 2 weeks
C. Inability to care for the newborn
D. Insomnia with paranoia
E. Intrusive thoughts of harming the infant
Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: Postpartum psychosis involves psychosis, paranoia, delusions,
hallucinations, and thoughts of harming self or infant. Tearfulness/fatigue resolving in
2 weeks is typical postpartum blues.
A mother says, "I feel overwhelmed and keep crying." Which is the best
response by the nurse?
A. "You need to calm down and focus on your baby."
B. "This is normal. It will go away soon."
C. "Tell me more about how you're feeling."
D. "You should be happy now that your baby is here.
Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic communication encourages expression of feelings.
Minimizing, demanding change, or dismissing emotions is non-therapeutic.
The nurse is assessing a post-C-section client. Which findings require
immediate intervention? SATA
A. Saturating 1 pad/hr
B. Incision redness and purulent drainage
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Foul-smelling lochia
E. Abdominal pain relieved with analgesics
Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Hemorrhage, wound infection, foul lochia, and hemodynamic instability
are emergencies. Mild controlled pain is expected.
, Page 3 of 39
A client with mild preeclampsia suddenly has epigastric pain and
hyperreflexia. What complication is suspected?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Placenta previa
C. Postpartum depression
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: Epigastric pain, hyperreflexia, and worsening pre-E suggest HELLP
syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets).
What should be included in discharge teaching for a client with molar
pregnancy? SATA
A. Avoid pregnancy for 1 year
B. Weekly hCG monitoring
C. Use IUD contraception
D. Report heavy bleeding or foul discharge
E. Expect follow-up D&C if incomplete
Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Pregnancy is delayed to monitor hCG for malignancy. Hormonal
contraception is recommended (not IUD due to infection risk).
A 34-week client with painless vaginal bleeding is admitted. What is the
priority action?
A. Perform vaginal exam
B. Place client on bedrest and monitor fetal HR
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Start pushing IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bleeding = placenta previa. No vaginal exam (risk hemorrhage);
stabilize mother/fetus first.
Which postpartum clients are at increased risk for thromboembolism? SATA
A. BMI of 36
B. Emergency C-section
C. Multiparity
D. Smoking history
E. Bedrest after delivery
, Page 4 of 39
Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Obesity, immobility, C-section, and smoking increase clot risk. Multiparity
alone is not a risk factor.
What is the priority nursing action for a preterm infant with intraventricular
hemorrhage?
A. Frequent repositioning
B. Minimize stimulation and handle gently
C. Administer hypertonic IV fluids
D. Place prone
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle handling prevents increased ICP and further bleeding.
Care of Patient with Cerclage (SATA):
What teaching is appropriate?
A. Avoid intercourse
B. Report rupture of membranes
C. Limit physical activity
D. Expect increased discharge
E. Remove at 36-38 weeks
Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Cerclage prevents preterm birth; pelvic rest and reduced activity are
essential. ROM must be reported.
A Rh-negative mother delivered an Rh-positive infant. What's indicated?
A. RhoGAM within 72 hrs
B. RhoGAM during labor
C. RhoGAM only if infant jaundiced
D. None if indirect Coombs negative
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is given postpartum to prevent isoimmunization if the newborn is
Rh+.
Which are correct methods for feeding a preterm infant? SATA
A. Gavage feeding if weak suck
B. Frequent small feeds
C. Demand feeding only
M/B Final Exam Nclex Practice Questions Exam Newest
2026 Exam Latest Version Solved Questions & Answers
Verified 100 %
Struggling with NCLEX preparation?
I help nursing students master smart exam strategies, critical thinking, and
question analysis techniques needed to pass the NCLEX on the first attempt.My
coaching focuses on:
• Understanding NCLEX-style questions
• Test-taking strategies
• Priority and delegation questions
• Pharmacology simplification
• SATA question techniques
• Confidence building and time management
Whether you are repeating the exam or preparing for your first try, I will guide you
step-by-step until you feel fully ready.
Join my NCLEX coaching program today and increase your chances of passing with
confidence.
Your nursing license starts with the right preparation.
Contact:
M/B Final exam nclex practice questions
A 36-week pregnant client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. Which result
would indicate fetal lung maturity?
A. Lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
B. Positive Nitrazine test
C. Negative contraction stress test
D. Bilirubin level decreased in amniotic fluid
, Page 2 of 39
Answer: A
Rationale: An L/S ratio ≥ 2:1 indicates adequate surfactant and fetal lung maturity.
Nitrazine tests assess for rupture of membranes, contraction stress tests assess
placental function, and bilirubin in amniotic fluid assesses for hemolytic disease.
Which findings would alert the nurse to postpartum psychosis? SATA
A. Delusions or hallucinations
B. Tearfulness and fatigue resolving within 2 weeks
C. Inability to care for the newborn
D. Insomnia with paranoia
E. Intrusive thoughts of harming the infant
Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: Postpartum psychosis involves psychosis, paranoia, delusions,
hallucinations, and thoughts of harming self or infant. Tearfulness/fatigue resolving in
2 weeks is typical postpartum blues.
A mother says, "I feel overwhelmed and keep crying." Which is the best
response by the nurse?
A. "You need to calm down and focus on your baby."
B. "This is normal. It will go away soon."
C. "Tell me more about how you're feeling."
D. "You should be happy now that your baby is here.
Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic communication encourages expression of feelings.
Minimizing, demanding change, or dismissing emotions is non-therapeutic.
The nurse is assessing a post-C-section client. Which findings require
immediate intervention? SATA
A. Saturating 1 pad/hr
B. Incision redness and purulent drainage
C. Hypotension and tachycardia
D. Foul-smelling lochia
E. Abdominal pain relieved with analgesics
Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Hemorrhage, wound infection, foul lochia, and hemodynamic instability
are emergencies. Mild controlled pain is expected.
, Page 3 of 39
A client with mild preeclampsia suddenly has epigastric pain and
hyperreflexia. What complication is suspected?
A. HELLP syndrome
B. Placenta previa
C. Postpartum depression
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: Epigastric pain, hyperreflexia, and worsening pre-E suggest HELLP
syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets).
What should be included in discharge teaching for a client with molar
pregnancy? SATA
A. Avoid pregnancy for 1 year
B. Weekly hCG monitoring
C. Use IUD contraception
D. Report heavy bleeding or foul discharge
E. Expect follow-up D&C if incomplete
Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Pregnancy is delayed to monitor hCG for malignancy. Hormonal
contraception is recommended (not IUD due to infection risk).
A 34-week client with painless vaginal bleeding is admitted. What is the
priority action?
A. Perform vaginal exam
B. Place client on bedrest and monitor fetal HR
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Start pushing IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bleeding = placenta previa. No vaginal exam (risk hemorrhage);
stabilize mother/fetus first.
Which postpartum clients are at increased risk for thromboembolism? SATA
A. BMI of 36
B. Emergency C-section
C. Multiparity
D. Smoking history
E. Bedrest after delivery
, Page 4 of 39
Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Obesity, immobility, C-section, and smoking increase clot risk. Multiparity
alone is not a risk factor.
What is the priority nursing action for a preterm infant with intraventricular
hemorrhage?
A. Frequent repositioning
B. Minimize stimulation and handle gently
C. Administer hypertonic IV fluids
D. Place prone
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle handling prevents increased ICP and further bleeding.
Care of Patient with Cerclage (SATA):
What teaching is appropriate?
A. Avoid intercourse
B. Report rupture of membranes
C. Limit physical activity
D. Expect increased discharge
E. Remove at 36-38 weeks
Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Cerclage prevents preterm birth; pelvic rest and reduced activity are
essential. ROM must be reported.
A Rh-negative mother delivered an Rh-positive infant. What's indicated?
A. RhoGAM within 72 hrs
B. RhoGAM during labor
C. RhoGAM only if infant jaundiced
D. None if indirect Coombs negative
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is given postpartum to prevent isoimmunization if the newborn is
Rh+.
Which are correct methods for feeding a preterm infant? SATA
A. Gavage feeding if weak suck
B. Frequent small feeds
C. Demand feeding only
