HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
HESI MEDSURG EXAM TEST BANK PREP NEWEST
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
During lung assessment, the nurse places a stethoscope on a client's chest and
instructs him/her to say "99" each time the chest is touched with the stethoscope.
What should be the correct interpretation if the nurse hears the spoken words
"99" very clearly through the stethoscope?
A) This is a normal auscultatory finding.
B) May indicate pneumothorax.
C) May indicate pneumonia.
D) May indicate severe emphysema. - Correct Answer-C) May indicate pneumonia.
Rationale: This test (whispered pectoriloquy) demonstrates hyperresonance and
helps determine the clarity with which spoken words are heard upon auscultation.
Normally, the spoken word is not well transmitted through lung tissue, and is
heard as a muffled or unclear transmission of the spoken word. Increased clarity of
a spoken word is indicative of some sort of consolidation process (e.g., tumor,
pneumonia) (C), and is not a normal finding (A). When lung tissue is filled with
more air than normal, the voice sounds are absent or very diminished (e.g.,
pneumothorax, severe emphysema) (B and D).
1|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
The nurse is caring for a group of clients with acidosis. The nurse recognizes that
Kussmaul respirations are consistent with which situation?
A) Client receiving mechanical ventilation
B) Use of hydrochlorothiazide
C) Aspirin overdose
D) Administration of sodium bicarbonate - Correct Answer-C) Aspirin overdose
Rationale: If acidosis is metabolic in origin, the rate and depth of breathing
increase as the hydrogen ion level rises; this is known as Kussmaul respirations.
Metabolic acidosis is caused by alcoholic beverages, methyl alcohol, and
acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin). A) Mechanical ventilation is used to correct
hypoxemia and hypercapnia (elevated Pco2). B) Hydrochlorothiazide causes
metabolic alkalosis; clients who display metabolic acidosis compensate with
Kussmaul respirations. D) Sodium bicarbonate is used in the treatment of
metabolic acidosis; administration of this buffer may cause metabolic alkalosis.
During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the
nurse, "What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization
insurance plan?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A) Long-term relationships with healthcare providers are more likely.
B) There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
C) Insurance coverage of employees is less expensive to employers.
D) An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group. -
Correct Answer-C) Insurance coverage of employees is less expensive to
employers.
2|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
Rationale: The financial advantage of (C) is the feature of a PPO that is most
relevant to the average consumer. The nurse must have knowledge about PPOs,
which provide discounted rates to large employers who provide insurance
coverage for their employees. In return, the insurance company receives a large
pool of clients for their facilities. (A, B, and D) are not accurate representations of
the PPO.
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is
of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's
A) pulse rate, both apically and radially.
B) blood pressure, both standing and sitting.
C) temperature.
D) skin color and turgor. - Correct Answer-C) temperature.
Rationale: It is very important to check the client's temperature (C). Infection is the
most common factor precipitating respiratory distress. Clients with COPD who are
on maintenance doses of corticosteroids are particularly predisposed to infection.
(A and B) are important data for baseline and ongoing assessment, but they are
not as important as temperature measurement for this client who is taking
steroids. Assessment of skin color and turgor is less important (D).
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about
reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
3|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution.
C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle.
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F
appears.
F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months. - Correct Answer-Correct selections
are (D and E).
Rationale: The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to
prevent pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the
risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs, the client should notify the healthcare
provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the integrity of
the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm
should not be used during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and
is not indicated because conception does not occur during this time. (F) is not
necessary.
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods
that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is
most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the
prescribed diet?
A) He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected
foot.
4|Page
HESI MEDSURG EXAM TEST BANK PREP NEWEST
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
During lung assessment, the nurse places a stethoscope on a client's chest and
instructs him/her to say "99" each time the chest is touched with the stethoscope.
What should be the correct interpretation if the nurse hears the spoken words
"99" very clearly through the stethoscope?
A) This is a normal auscultatory finding.
B) May indicate pneumothorax.
C) May indicate pneumonia.
D) May indicate severe emphysema. - Correct Answer-C) May indicate pneumonia.
Rationale: This test (whispered pectoriloquy) demonstrates hyperresonance and
helps determine the clarity with which spoken words are heard upon auscultation.
Normally, the spoken word is not well transmitted through lung tissue, and is
heard as a muffled or unclear transmission of the spoken word. Increased clarity of
a spoken word is indicative of some sort of consolidation process (e.g., tumor,
pneumonia) (C), and is not a normal finding (A). When lung tissue is filled with
more air than normal, the voice sounds are absent or very diminished (e.g.,
pneumothorax, severe emphysema) (B and D).
1|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
The nurse is caring for a group of clients with acidosis. The nurse recognizes that
Kussmaul respirations are consistent with which situation?
A) Client receiving mechanical ventilation
B) Use of hydrochlorothiazide
C) Aspirin overdose
D) Administration of sodium bicarbonate - Correct Answer-C) Aspirin overdose
Rationale: If acidosis is metabolic in origin, the rate and depth of breathing
increase as the hydrogen ion level rises; this is known as Kussmaul respirations.
Metabolic acidosis is caused by alcoholic beverages, methyl alcohol, and
acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin). A) Mechanical ventilation is used to correct
hypoxemia and hypercapnia (elevated Pco2). B) Hydrochlorothiazide causes
metabolic alkalosis; clients who display metabolic acidosis compensate with
Kussmaul respirations. D) Sodium bicarbonate is used in the treatment of
metabolic acidosis; administration of this buffer may cause metabolic alkalosis.
During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the
nurse, "What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization
insurance plan?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A) Long-term relationships with healthcare providers are more likely.
B) There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
C) Insurance coverage of employees is less expensive to employers.
D) An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group. -
Correct Answer-C) Insurance coverage of employees is less expensive to
employers.
2|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
Rationale: The financial advantage of (C) is the feature of a PPO that is most
relevant to the average consumer. The nurse must have knowledge about PPOs,
which provide discounted rates to large employers who provide insurance
coverage for their employees. In return, the insurance company receives a large
pool of clients for their facilities. (A, B, and D) are not accurate representations of
the PPO.
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is
of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's
A) pulse rate, both apically and radially.
B) blood pressure, both standing and sitting.
C) temperature.
D) skin color and turgor. - Correct Answer-C) temperature.
Rationale: It is very important to check the client's temperature (C). Infection is the
most common factor precipitating respiratory distress. Clients with COPD who are
on maintenance doses of corticosteroids are particularly predisposed to infection.
(A and B) are important data for baseline and ongoing assessment, but they are
not as important as temperature measurement for this client who is taking
steroids. Assessment of skin color and turgor is less important (D).
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about
reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information should the
nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
3|Page
, HESI Medsurg Exam Test Bank Prep
A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution.
C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle.
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F
appears.
F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months. - Correct Answer-Correct selections
are (D and E).
Rationale: The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to
prevent pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the
risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs, the client should notify the healthcare
provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the integrity of
the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm
should not be used during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and
is not indicated because conception does not occur during this time. (F) is not
necessary.
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods
that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is
most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the
prescribed diet?
A) He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected
foot.
4|Page
