NUR 635: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY GRADUATE CORE | COMPLETE
COURSE OBJECTIVE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS | LATEST
2026/2027 VERSION (PASS GUARANTEE)
1. Which pharmacokinetic parameter best describes the relationship between drug
dose and plasma concentration?
A. Half-life
B. Volume of distribution
C. Bioavailability
D. Area under the curve (AUC)
ANSWER : D
2. A drug with a high volume of distribution (Vd) is most likely:
A. Primarily confined to the plasma
B. Extensively bound to plasma proteins
C. Widely distributed into peripheral tissues
D. Rapidly eliminated by the kidneys
ANSWER : C
3. First-order elimination kinetics means that:
A. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
B. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
C. Elimination rate is independent of concentration
D. The drug saturates metabolic enzymes
ANSWER : B
4. Which of the following best defines bioavailability?
, A. Speed at which a drug reaches peak plasma levels
B. Fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged
C. Rate of drug metabolism in the liver
D. Volume in which a drug appears to distribute
ANSWER : B
5. A drug has a half-life of 8 hours. How long until steady-state is reached?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 40 hours
D. 64 hours
ANSWER : C
6. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing the greatest
number of drugs?
A. CYP1A2
B. CYP2C9
C. CYP2D6
D. CYP3A4
ANSWER : D
7. Zero-order kinetics are associated with which characteristic?
A. Proportional increase in half-life with dose
B. Constant fraction eliminated per unit time
C. Constant amount eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
D. Predictable linear pharmacokinetics
ANSWER : C
8. Enterohepatic recirculation is most likely to prolong the effect of drugs that are:
A. Excreted unchanged in urine
B. Highly water-soluble
C. Conjugated in the liver and hydrolyzed in the gut
, D. Poorly absorbed orally
ANSWER : C
9. Which factor most significantly reduces oral bioavailability via first-pass
metabolism?
A. Renal clearance
B. High hepatic extraction ratio
C. Low protein binding
D. Large volume of distribution
ANSWER : B
10. Protein binding of drugs primarily affects which pharmacokinetic parameter?
A. Renal clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Oral absorption
D. GI motility
ANSWER : B
11. An agonist that produces a maximal response at less than full receptor occupancy
is said to have:
A. Low affinity
B. Spare receptors
C. Partial agonism
D. Competitive antagonism
ANSWER : B
12. The EC50 of a drug refers to:
A. The dose producing 50% lethality in animals
B. The concentration producing 50% of maximal effect
C. The effective concentration in 50% of patients
D. The concentration at which 50% of receptors are bound
ANSWER : B
, 13. A competitive antagonist shifts the agonist dose-response curve:
A. Downward without changing maximum
B. To the right without changing maximum
C. To the left with decreased maximum
D. To the right with decreased maximum
ANSWER : B
14. The therapeutic index (TI) is calculated as:
A. ED50 / LD50
B. LD50 / ED50
C. EC50 / IC50
D. Cmax / Cmin
ANSWER : B
15. Tachyphylaxis refers to:
A. Rapid onset of drug toxicity
B. Rapid decrease in drug response upon repeated administration
C. Slow development of tolerance
D. Cross-reactivity between drug classes
ANSWER : B
16. Receptor down-regulation typically occurs in response to:
A. Chronic antagonist administration
B. Prolonged agonist exposure
C. Enzyme induction
D. Decreased renal clearance
ANSWER : B
17. Which term describes a drug that binds to a receptor but produces less than the
maximum possible effect?
A. Full agonist
COURSE OBJECTIVE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS | LATEST
2026/2027 VERSION (PASS GUARANTEE)
1. Which pharmacokinetic parameter best describes the relationship between drug
dose and plasma concentration?
A. Half-life
B. Volume of distribution
C. Bioavailability
D. Area under the curve (AUC)
ANSWER : D
2. A drug with a high volume of distribution (Vd) is most likely:
A. Primarily confined to the plasma
B. Extensively bound to plasma proteins
C. Widely distributed into peripheral tissues
D. Rapidly eliminated by the kidneys
ANSWER : C
3. First-order elimination kinetics means that:
A. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
B. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
C. Elimination rate is independent of concentration
D. The drug saturates metabolic enzymes
ANSWER : B
4. Which of the following best defines bioavailability?
, A. Speed at which a drug reaches peak plasma levels
B. Fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation unchanged
C. Rate of drug metabolism in the liver
D. Volume in which a drug appears to distribute
ANSWER : B
5. A drug has a half-life of 8 hours. How long until steady-state is reached?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 40 hours
D. 64 hours
ANSWER : C
6. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing the greatest
number of drugs?
A. CYP1A2
B. CYP2C9
C. CYP2D6
D. CYP3A4
ANSWER : D
7. Zero-order kinetics are associated with which characteristic?
A. Proportional increase in half-life with dose
B. Constant fraction eliminated per unit time
C. Constant amount eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration
D. Predictable linear pharmacokinetics
ANSWER : C
8. Enterohepatic recirculation is most likely to prolong the effect of drugs that are:
A. Excreted unchanged in urine
B. Highly water-soluble
C. Conjugated in the liver and hydrolyzed in the gut
, D. Poorly absorbed orally
ANSWER : C
9. Which factor most significantly reduces oral bioavailability via first-pass
metabolism?
A. Renal clearance
B. High hepatic extraction ratio
C. Low protein binding
D. Large volume of distribution
ANSWER : B
10. Protein binding of drugs primarily affects which pharmacokinetic parameter?
A. Renal clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Oral absorption
D. GI motility
ANSWER : B
11. An agonist that produces a maximal response at less than full receptor occupancy
is said to have:
A. Low affinity
B. Spare receptors
C. Partial agonism
D. Competitive antagonism
ANSWER : B
12. The EC50 of a drug refers to:
A. The dose producing 50% lethality in animals
B. The concentration producing 50% of maximal effect
C. The effective concentration in 50% of patients
D. The concentration at which 50% of receptors are bound
ANSWER : B
, 13. A competitive antagonist shifts the agonist dose-response curve:
A. Downward without changing maximum
B. To the right without changing maximum
C. To the left with decreased maximum
D. To the right with decreased maximum
ANSWER : B
14. The therapeutic index (TI) is calculated as:
A. ED50 / LD50
B. LD50 / ED50
C. EC50 / IC50
D. Cmax / Cmin
ANSWER : B
15. Tachyphylaxis refers to:
A. Rapid onset of drug toxicity
B. Rapid decrease in drug response upon repeated administration
C. Slow development of tolerance
D. Cross-reactivity between drug classes
ANSWER : B
16. Receptor down-regulation typically occurs in response to:
A. Chronic antagonist administration
B. Prolonged agonist exposure
C. Enzyme induction
D. Decreased renal clearance
ANSWER : B
17. Which term describes a drug that binds to a receptor but produces less than the
maximum possible effect?
A. Full agonist
