Actual Exam 2026/2027: Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Antepartum Care and Fetal Development | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Intrapartum Nursing and Labor Management | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Postpartum Assessment and Complications | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Newborn Assessment and Transition | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | High-Risk Pregnancy and Maternal Emergencies | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE AND FETAL DEVELOPMENT Q1 – Q10
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Question 1 of 50
A 24-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks gestation attends her routine prenatal visit. The nurse
measures her fundal height at 28 cm. The patient has had regular prenatal care and her
dates are confirmed by a first-trimester ultrasound. What does this finding most
suggest?
A. Normal variation within expected limits for this gestational age
B. Fetal macrosomia from undiagnosed gestational diabetes
C. Intrauterine growth restriction or oligohydramnios requiring further evaluation ✓
CORRECT
D. Polyhydramnios with a large-for-gestational-age infant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fundal height measurement that lags gestational age by more than 2
centimeters suggests intrauterine growth restriction or oligohydramnios, which requires
,further evaluation with ultrasound. Fetal macrosomia and polyhydramnios would
produce a larger fundal height rather than a smaller measurement. This screening tool
is simple but effective at identifying pregnancies that need additional surveillance.
Question 2 of 50
A 32-year-old at 16 weeks gestation receives her quad screen results and is told her
maternal serum AFP is elevated. She is anxious and asks the nurse what will happen
next. Which response best describes the appropriate sequence of care?
A. Immediate amniocentesis to confirm a neural tube defect
B. Targeted ultrasound to evaluate for open neural tube defects or other anomalies ✓
CORRECT
C. Repeating the quad screen in two weeks to verify the result
D. Offering termination of the pregnancy based on the screen alone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A targeted ultrasound is the appropriate next step after an elevated maternal
serum AFP because it can identify open neural tube defects and other structural
anomalies before proceeding to invasive testing. Immediate amniocentesis is not
indicated without first attempting to visualize the fetus noninvasively. This stepwise
approach minimizes unnecessary procedures while ensuring thorough evaluation.
Question 3 of 50
A 28-year-old at 10 weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting severe nausea and
vomiting that has persisted for two weeks. She has lost 5 pounds, cannot keep fluids
down, and noticed dark urine this morning. The nurse instructs her to come to the office
immediately. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Initiate intravenous fluids and antiemetics for hyperemesis gravidarum ✓ CORRECT
B. Encourage small frequent meals of dry carbohydrates and ginger tea
C. Recommend acupressure wristbands and increased oral hydration
, D. Advise complete bed rest until the nausea resolves spontaneously
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum with ketonuria and weight loss requires intravenous
hydration and antiemetics to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Ginger
supplements and acupressure are appropriate for mild nausea but insufficient for
severe dehydration with metabolic changes. Untreated hyperemesis can progress to
Wernicke encephalopathy and renal dysfunction from severe volume depletion.
Question 4 of 50
A 19-year-old G1P0 at 32 weeks calls the obstetric triage line reporting that she has not
felt the baby move in the past 24 hours. She is brought in for monitoring, and the
nonstress test shows minimal variability with no accelerations over 40 minutes. The
baseline fetal heart rate is 140. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Reassure the patient that fetal sleep cycles are normal and schedule a follow-up in
one week
B. Send the patient home with a kick count diary and instructions to return if movement
decreases further
C. Prepare the operating room for an immediate cesarean delivery
D. Perform a biophysical profile or additional testing to assess fetal well-being ✓
CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement with a nonreactive nonstress test requires further
evaluation with a biophysical profile or additional testing to assess fetal well-being
before any delivery decisions. Immediate cesarean delivery is not indicated without
confirming fetal compromise, and dismissing the findings is unsafe. The biophysical
profile provides a more comprehensive assessment of fetal status.
Question 5 of 50