NUR 283 COMP 1 Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027:
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales
| 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Medical-Surgical Nursing Foundations | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Cardiovascular and Respiratory Disorders | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Endocrine and Renal Disorders | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Gastrointestinal and Neurological Disorders | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Perioperative and Emergency Nursing | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING FOUNDATIONS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old male patient is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with
community-acquired pneumonia. His vital signs are temperature 101.8°F, heart rate 96
bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 142/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 91% on
room air. The nurse is developing the plan of care and prioritizing interventions using
Maslow's hierarchy of needs. The nurse's first priority should be to:
A. Administer the prescribed antibiotic regimen to treat the infection.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen to maintain saturation above 94%. ✓ CORRECT
C. Offer emotional support and explain the treatment plan to reduce anxiety.
D. Assist the patient with oral hygiene and positioning for comfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy places physiological needs including oxygenation at the
foundation, and a saturation of 91% indicates impaired gas exchange that threatens
,cellular function before any other need is addressed. Antibiotic administration is
important but secondary to immediate oxygenation support. Emotional support and
comfort measures are valid nursing interventions but belong higher on the hierarchy
and should not precede life-sustaining physiological support.
Question 2 of 50
A 54-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a fasting blood
glucose and hemoglobin A1c draw at 0700. The nurse reviews the medication
administration record and notes the patient took her metformin and glipizide at 0600
with a small sip of water. The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A. Proceed with the laboratory draw and document the medication timing.
B. Notify the provider that the patient took her oral hypoglycemics before the fasting
draw. ✓ CORRECT
C. Reschedule the laboratory draw for the next morning and hold the patient's breakfast.
D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push prophylactically to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral hypoglycemic agents taken before a fasting blood draw can artificially
lower the glucose result and compromise the diagnostic accuracy of both fasting
glucose and A1c interpretation. The provider needs this information to correctly
interpret results and potentially reorder the tests. Proceeding with the draw produces
misleading data, rescheduling is unnecessary when the provider can be consulted, and
prophylactic dextrose is inappropriate without documented hypoglycemia.
Question 3 of 50
A 72-year-old male patient with a history of heart failure is being discharged home on
furosemide 40 mg daily, lisinopril 10 mg daily, and potassium chloride 20 mEq daily.
During discharge teaching, the patient asks why he needs to take the potassium pill.
The nurse's best response is:
,A. "The potassium prevents muscle cramps that can occur with the water pill."
B. "Furosemide makes you lose potassium in your urine, so we replace it to prevent
dangerous heart rhythms." ✓ CORRECT
C. "The potassium helps the water pill work better to reduce fluid buildup."
D. "Your doctor ordered it to keep your electrolytes balanced in general."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide cause significant renal potassium wasting,
and hypokalemia is a well-documented trigger for life-threatening ventricular
arrhythmias in patients with cardiac disease. The explanation must connect the specific
mechanism to the clinical risk to promote adherence. Muscle cramps are a symptom of
hypokalemia but not the most dangerous consequence, potassium does not potentiate
diuretic effect, and vague explanations about general balance do not motivate
compliance.
Question 4 of 50
A 45-year-old female patient is admitted for observation following a syncopal episode at
work. She has no known medical history and takes no medications. Her vital signs are
stable, and the provider orders a 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, comprehensive
metabolic panel, and telemetry monitoring for 24 hours. The nurse is reviewing the
orders and recognizes that the purpose of the CBC is primarily to assess for:
A. Myocardial ischemia indicated by elevated cardiac enzymes.
B. Anemia or infection that could contribute to decreased oxygen delivery. ✓ CORRECT
C. Coagulopathy that increases risk for intracranial hemorrhage.
D. Electrolyte imbalances affecting cardiac conduction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A complete blood count evaluates hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white blood
cell count, which directly assess oxygen-carrying capacity and occult infection; both
anemia and sepsis are common reversible causes of syncope. Cardiac enzymes are not
part of a CBC, coagulation studies are ordered separately, and electrolytes are
, measured in the comprehensive metabolic panel. Understanding what each test
evaluates prevents misinterpretation and missed diagnoses.
Question 5 of 50
A 61-year-old male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient
has removed the cannula and turned the flowmeter to 6 liters, stating he feels short of
breath and needs more air. His oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The nurse's
priority intervention is to:
A. Leave the oxygen at 6 liters since the patient feels better and saturation is adequate.
B. Return the oxygen to 2 liters and reassess the patient's respiratory status and anxiety
level. ✓ CORRECT
C. Increase the oxygen to 4 liters as a compromise between the prescribed and
requested flow rates.
D. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 liters to maximize oxygen delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: COPD patients with chronic hypercapnia rely on hypoxic drive for respiratory
stimulation, and excessive oxygen can suppress ventilation leading to carbon dioxide
narcosis and respiratory arrest. The nurse must restore the prescribed flow rate and
address the underlying cause of dyspnea, which may be anxiety or bronchospasm
rather than hypoxemia. Leaving high-flow oxygen or compromising on an unsafe rate
places the patient at risk, and a non-rebreather is inappropriate for a patient saturating
well on room air.
Question 6 of 50
A 38-year-old female patient is admitted to the medical-surgical unit following a motor
vehicle accident with multiple rib fractures on the right side. She rates her pain 8 out of
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales
| 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Medical-Surgical Nursing Foundations | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Cardiovascular and Respiratory Disorders | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Endocrine and Renal Disorders | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Gastrointestinal and Neurological Disorders | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Perioperative and Emergency Nursing | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING FOUNDATIONS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old male patient is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with
community-acquired pneumonia. His vital signs are temperature 101.8°F, heart rate 96
bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 142/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 91% on
room air. The nurse is developing the plan of care and prioritizing interventions using
Maslow's hierarchy of needs. The nurse's first priority should be to:
A. Administer the prescribed antibiotic regimen to treat the infection.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen to maintain saturation above 94%. ✓ CORRECT
C. Offer emotional support and explain the treatment plan to reduce anxiety.
D. Assist the patient with oral hygiene and positioning for comfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy places physiological needs including oxygenation at the
foundation, and a saturation of 91% indicates impaired gas exchange that threatens
,cellular function before any other need is addressed. Antibiotic administration is
important but secondary to immediate oxygenation support. Emotional support and
comfort measures are valid nursing interventions but belong higher on the hierarchy
and should not precede life-sustaining physiological support.
Question 2 of 50
A 54-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a fasting blood
glucose and hemoglobin A1c draw at 0700. The nurse reviews the medication
administration record and notes the patient took her metformin and glipizide at 0600
with a small sip of water. The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A. Proceed with the laboratory draw and document the medication timing.
B. Notify the provider that the patient took her oral hypoglycemics before the fasting
draw. ✓ CORRECT
C. Reschedule the laboratory draw for the next morning and hold the patient's breakfast.
D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push prophylactically to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral hypoglycemic agents taken before a fasting blood draw can artificially
lower the glucose result and compromise the diagnostic accuracy of both fasting
glucose and A1c interpretation. The provider needs this information to correctly
interpret results and potentially reorder the tests. Proceeding with the draw produces
misleading data, rescheduling is unnecessary when the provider can be consulted, and
prophylactic dextrose is inappropriate without documented hypoglycemia.
Question 3 of 50
A 72-year-old male patient with a history of heart failure is being discharged home on
furosemide 40 mg daily, lisinopril 10 mg daily, and potassium chloride 20 mEq daily.
During discharge teaching, the patient asks why he needs to take the potassium pill.
The nurse's best response is:
,A. "The potassium prevents muscle cramps that can occur with the water pill."
B. "Furosemide makes you lose potassium in your urine, so we replace it to prevent
dangerous heart rhythms." ✓ CORRECT
C. "The potassium helps the water pill work better to reduce fluid buildup."
D. "Your doctor ordered it to keep your electrolytes balanced in general."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide cause significant renal potassium wasting,
and hypokalemia is a well-documented trigger for life-threatening ventricular
arrhythmias in patients with cardiac disease. The explanation must connect the specific
mechanism to the clinical risk to promote adherence. Muscle cramps are a symptom of
hypokalemia but not the most dangerous consequence, potassium does not potentiate
diuretic effect, and vague explanations about general balance do not motivate
compliance.
Question 4 of 50
A 45-year-old female patient is admitted for observation following a syncopal episode at
work. She has no known medical history and takes no medications. Her vital signs are
stable, and the provider orders a 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, comprehensive
metabolic panel, and telemetry monitoring for 24 hours. The nurse is reviewing the
orders and recognizes that the purpose of the CBC is primarily to assess for:
A. Myocardial ischemia indicated by elevated cardiac enzymes.
B. Anemia or infection that could contribute to decreased oxygen delivery. ✓ CORRECT
C. Coagulopathy that increases risk for intracranial hemorrhage.
D. Electrolyte imbalances affecting cardiac conduction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A complete blood count evaluates hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white blood
cell count, which directly assess oxygen-carrying capacity and occult infection; both
anemia and sepsis are common reversible causes of syncope. Cardiac enzymes are not
part of a CBC, coagulation studies are ordered separately, and electrolytes are
, measured in the comprehensive metabolic panel. Understanding what each test
evaluates prevents misinterpretation and missed diagnoses.
Question 5 of 50
A 61-year-old male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient
has removed the cannula and turned the flowmeter to 6 liters, stating he feels short of
breath and needs more air. His oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The nurse's
priority intervention is to:
A. Leave the oxygen at 6 liters since the patient feels better and saturation is adequate.
B. Return the oxygen to 2 liters and reassess the patient's respiratory status and anxiety
level. ✓ CORRECT
C. Increase the oxygen to 4 liters as a compromise between the prescribed and
requested flow rates.
D. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 liters to maximize oxygen delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: COPD patients with chronic hypercapnia rely on hypoxic drive for respiratory
stimulation, and excessive oxygen can suppress ventilation leading to carbon dioxide
narcosis and respiratory arrest. The nurse must restore the prescribed flow rate and
address the underlying cause of dyspnea, which may be anxiety or bronchospasm
rather than hypoxemia. Leaving high-flow oxygen or compromising on an unsafe rate
places the patient at risk, and a non-rebreather is inappropriate for a patient saturating
well on room air.
Question 6 of 50
A 38-year-old female patient is admitted to the medical-surgical unit following a motor
vehicle accident with multiple rib fractures on the right side. She rates her pain 8 out of
