2026/2027
Comprehensive NSG 3280 Exam 3
Preparation Manual with NCLEX-Style
Questions and Rationales 2026/2027
Question 1:
The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most commonly caused by sexually
transmitted pathogens, especially Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
N. gonorrhoeae is a leading cause due to its ability to ascend from the lower genital
tract. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, not PID. E. coli is more associated with
urinary tract infections, and Pseudomonas is an opportunistic organism rarely linked
to PID.
Question 2:
A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which sexually transmitted
infection?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: B. Syphilis
Rationale: Syphilis has a distinct latent phase where the infection is asymptomatic but
still present in the body. Gonorrhea and chlamydia typically cause earlier symptoms,
while hepatitis B is viral with different disease progression. The latent stage of
syphilis can last years, making it clinically significant.
Question 3:
A painless ulceration called a chancre is associated with infection by:
,2026/2027
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: D. Treponema pallidum
Rationale: A chancre is the classic painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis caused by
Treponema pallidum. HPV causes warts, gonorrhea causes purulent discharge, and
chlamydia is often asymptomatic or causes urethritis/cervicitis rather than ulcers.
Question 4:
Which infection is a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Granuloma inguinale
D. Chancroid
Correct Answer: A. Human papillomavirus
Rationale: HPV, particularly high-risk strains like 16 and 18, is strongly linked to
cervical cancer. The other infections are not associated with malignant transformation
of cervical cells.
Question 5:
Which infection is asymptomatic, self-limited, and does not require therapy?
A. Syphilis
B. Nongonococcal cervicitis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Molluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: D. Molluscum contagiosum
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a benign viral skin infection that often resolves
spontaneously. Syphilis, gonorrhea, and cervicitis require treatment due to
complications and transmission risks.
Question 6:
First-line treatment for syphilis is:
,2026/2027
A. Penicillin G
B. Doxycycline
C. Antiviral agents
D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Correct Answer: A. Penicillin G
Rationale: Penicillin G remains the gold standard for treating syphilis due to its
effectiveness against Treponema pallidum. Alternatives are used in penicillin-allergic
patients.
Question 7:
A male with dysuria and purulent urethral discharge most likely has:
A. Gonorrhea
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Chlamydia
D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: A. Gonorrhea
Rationale: Gonorrhea commonly presents with purulent urethral discharge and
dysuria. Chlamydia may be milder or asymptomatic. UTIs are less common in young
males, and syphilis does not present with purulent discharge.
Question 8:
Chlamydia transmission during birth can cause:
A. Neonatal jaundice
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Erythema neonatorum
D. Neonatal anemia
Correct Answer: B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
Rationale: Ophthalmia neonatorum is conjunctivitis in newborns caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis exposure during delivery, leading to serious eye infection if
untreated.
Question 9:
The CDC estimates approximately how many new sexually transmitted infections
occur annually in the U.S.?
, 2026/2027
A. 580,000
B. 1.7 million
C. 20 million
D. 17 billion
Correct Answer: C. 20 million
Rationale: The CDC reports approximately 20 million new STI cases annually,
highlighting the global and national burden of sexually transmitted infections.
Question 10:
The incubation period of syphilis is:
A. 2–3 days
B. 10–90 days
C. 3–6 weeks
D. 40 years
Correct Answer: B. 10–90 days
Rationale: Syphilis has a variable incubation period ranging from 10 to 90 days before
the appearance of the chancre.
Question 11:
Herpes lesions typically appear:
A. 1–2 days
B. 3–7 days
C. 7–10 days
D. 10–14 days
Correct Answer: B. 3–7 days
Rationale: Herpes simplex virus lesions typically appear within 3–7 days after
exposure as painful vesicles.
Question 12:
Central nervous system degeneration and blindness are associated with untreated:
A. HSV
B. LGV
C. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhea
Comprehensive NSG 3280 Exam 3
Preparation Manual with NCLEX-Style
Questions and Rationales 2026/2027
Question 1:
The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most commonly caused by sexually
transmitted pathogens, especially Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
N. gonorrhoeae is a leading cause due to its ability to ascend from the lower genital
tract. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, not PID. E. coli is more associated with
urinary tract infections, and Pseudomonas is an opportunistic organism rarely linked
to PID.
Question 2:
A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which sexually transmitted
infection?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: B. Syphilis
Rationale: Syphilis has a distinct latent phase where the infection is asymptomatic but
still present in the body. Gonorrhea and chlamydia typically cause earlier symptoms,
while hepatitis B is viral with different disease progression. The latent stage of
syphilis can last years, making it clinically significant.
Question 3:
A painless ulceration called a chancre is associated with infection by:
,2026/2027
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: D. Treponema pallidum
Rationale: A chancre is the classic painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis caused by
Treponema pallidum. HPV causes warts, gonorrhea causes purulent discharge, and
chlamydia is often asymptomatic or causes urethritis/cervicitis rather than ulcers.
Question 4:
Which infection is a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Granuloma inguinale
D. Chancroid
Correct Answer: A. Human papillomavirus
Rationale: HPV, particularly high-risk strains like 16 and 18, is strongly linked to
cervical cancer. The other infections are not associated with malignant transformation
of cervical cells.
Question 5:
Which infection is asymptomatic, self-limited, and does not require therapy?
A. Syphilis
B. Nongonococcal cervicitis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Molluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: D. Molluscum contagiosum
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a benign viral skin infection that often resolves
spontaneously. Syphilis, gonorrhea, and cervicitis require treatment due to
complications and transmission risks.
Question 6:
First-line treatment for syphilis is:
,2026/2027
A. Penicillin G
B. Doxycycline
C. Antiviral agents
D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Correct Answer: A. Penicillin G
Rationale: Penicillin G remains the gold standard for treating syphilis due to its
effectiveness against Treponema pallidum. Alternatives are used in penicillin-allergic
patients.
Question 7:
A male with dysuria and purulent urethral discharge most likely has:
A. Gonorrhea
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Chlamydia
D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: A. Gonorrhea
Rationale: Gonorrhea commonly presents with purulent urethral discharge and
dysuria. Chlamydia may be milder or asymptomatic. UTIs are less common in young
males, and syphilis does not present with purulent discharge.
Question 8:
Chlamydia transmission during birth can cause:
A. Neonatal jaundice
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Erythema neonatorum
D. Neonatal anemia
Correct Answer: B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
Rationale: Ophthalmia neonatorum is conjunctivitis in newborns caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis exposure during delivery, leading to serious eye infection if
untreated.
Question 9:
The CDC estimates approximately how many new sexually transmitted infections
occur annually in the U.S.?
, 2026/2027
A. 580,000
B. 1.7 million
C. 20 million
D. 17 billion
Correct Answer: C. 20 million
Rationale: The CDC reports approximately 20 million new STI cases annually,
highlighting the global and national burden of sexually transmitted infections.
Question 10:
The incubation period of syphilis is:
A. 2–3 days
B. 10–90 days
C. 3–6 weeks
D. 40 years
Correct Answer: B. 10–90 days
Rationale: Syphilis has a variable incubation period ranging from 10 to 90 days before
the appearance of the chancre.
Question 11:
Herpes lesions typically appear:
A. 1–2 days
B. 3–7 days
C. 7–10 days
D. 10–14 days
Correct Answer: B. 3–7 days
Rationale: Herpes simplex virus lesions typically appear within 3–7 days after
exposure as painful vesicles.
Question 12:
Central nervous system degeneration and blindness are associated with untreated:
A. HSV
B. LGV
C. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhea
