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PNR 206/PNR206 Exam 4 V2 | Medical Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale | Fortis College

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PNR 206/PNR206 Exam 4 V2 | Medical Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale | Fortis College

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PNR 206/PNR206 Exam 4 V2 | Medical-
Surgical Nursing II Q&A with Rationale |
Fortis College
1. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical

manifestation should the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment?

A. Cheyne-Stokes breathing and pinpoint pupils


B. Bradycardia and increased blood pressure


C. Moist, clammy skin and tremors


D. Kussmaul respirations and fruity breath odor


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that the body uses to

blow off excess carbon dioxide to compensate for metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath

odor is caused by the presence of ketones in the system, which are metabolic byproducts of

fat breakdown. These findings are classic signs of DKA and require immediate medical

intervention to stabilize the patient’s pH and electrolyte balance.


2. Which laboratory value is the most critical for the nurse to monitor in a patient diagnosed

with Acute Pancreatitis?

A. Serum Amylase and Lipase


B. Serum Creatinine

,C. White Blood Cell Count


D. Prothrombin Time (PT)


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Serum amylase and lipase are the primary enzymes released into the

bloodstream when pancreatic cells are damaged or inflamed. Lipase is generally more

specific to the pancreas and stays elevated longer than amylase. Monitoring these levels

helps the clinical team confirm the diagnosis and track the progression or resolution of the

inflammatory process.


3. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver is prescribed Lactulose. What is the primary purpose of

this medication in this specific patient population?

A. To reduce serum ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy


B. To treat chronic constipation and prevent hemorrhoids


C. To lower blood glucose levels in diabetic patients


D. To promote the excretion of excess bilirubin via the kidneys


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which converts ammonia

into ammonium, a form that cannot be easily reabsorbed into the blood. This allows the

ammonia to be excreted through the stool, thereby lowering systemic levels. High ammonia

levels are toxic to the brain and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, making this

medication vital for liver failure management.

,4. A nurse is caring for a patient post-cholecystectomy. The patient reports severe pain in the

right shoulder. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

A. This is a sign of internal hemorrhage and requires a rapid response.


B. The patient is experiencing an early sign of myocardial infarction.


C. This is referred pain caused by CO2 insufflation during surgery.


D. The patient is developing a pulmonary embolism post-operatively.


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: During laparoscopic surgery, carbon dioxide is used to inflate the

abdomen for better visualization, which can irritate the phrenic nerve. This irritation often

manifests as referred pain in the right shoulder. The nurse should encourage early

ambulation to help the body absorb the gas and alleviate the discomfort.


5. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate for a patient newly diagnosed with

Diverticulitis during the acute inflammatory phase?

A. Consume a high-fiber diet with whole grains and nuts.


B. Follow a high-protein, high-fat diet to promote healing.


C. Increase intake of raw vegetables and fruits with seeds.


D. Maintain a clear liquid diet or NPO status to rest the bowel.


Correct Answer: D

, Expert Explanation: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, the bowel needs time to

heal from inflammation and infection. A clear liquid diet or NPO (nothing by mouth) status

reduces peristalsis and prevents further irritation of the diverticula. Once the acute

symptoms subside, the patient is slowly transitioned back to a high-fiber diet for long-term

management.


6. A patient is diagnosed with Pernicious Anemia. The nurse understands this is caused by a

deficiency in which substance?

A. Iron


B. Folic Acid


C. Intrinsic Factor


D. Erythropoietin


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Pernicious anemia occurs when the gastric mucosa fails to produce

intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B12 in the small intestine.

Without Vitamin B12, red blood cells cannot mature properly, leading to macrocytic

anemia. Patients with this condition usually require lifelong Vitamin B12 injections because

oral supplements are not absorbed effectively.


7. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect a patient has a Bowel

Obstruction?

A. Decreased abdominal girth and increased appetite

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