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USMC CACO Exam 2026 Actual Test Bank | Marine Corps Casualty Assistance Calls Officer | 190+ Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed Rationales | Latest Update

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Pass your USMC CACO (Casualty Assistance Calls Officer) certification exam on the first attempt. This comprehensive practice test bank contains 190+ original, high-yield questions covering all USMC CACO domains, including CACO roles and responsibilities, notification procedures and protocols, legal and administrative aspects of casualty notification, casualty assistance calls and benefits counseling (DIC, SBP, SGLI, Death Gratuity, TRICARE), grief and bereavement support, documentation and reporting requirements, ethical and confidentiality issues, and coordination with military and civilian agencies. Complete with detailed rationales explaining correct answers and why distractors are wrong. Updated for the 2026 testing cycle. What's included in this exam bank: Section 1: CACO Roles and Responsibilities (Questions 1-20) Next of kin (NOK) with limited English proficiency in different state – travel with certified interpreter, coordinate with local police for in-person notification (MCO 5800.16A) Personal effects retrieval – explain 30-60 day inventory/shipment timeline, offer to facilitate communication with Commanding Officer NOK hospitalized with severe emotional reaction – postpone assistance activities until medically cleared, coordinate with medical staff SGLI beneficiary designation vs. will – SGLI beneficiary designation controls (federal law preempts state law per 38 U.S.C. § 1970) Minor child from previous marriage DIC eligibility – child may be eligible; CACO must ensure claim filed with VA, inform custodial parent Divorced parents, only mother listed as PNOK – acknowledge father's emotions but explain official NOK is mother, focus communication through her Family requests to view remains – coordinate with Mortuary Affairs, schedule viewing only after remains prepared and authorized by medical examiner SBP annuity and remarriage – remarriage before age 55 terminates SBP payments; may be reinstated if subsequent marriage ends (10 U.S.C. § 1448) Will not witnessed by legal officer (SCRA) – may be valid under SCRA; recommend family consult probate attorney (CACO not make legal determination) Debt collector threatening spouse – provide information about SCRA protections, refer to military legal assistance office PNOK cannot travel to Dover – coordinate with CAST to arrange government-funded transportation Will names friend as executor, parents are legal NOK – support legal NOK as primary contact, inform all parties of legal processes PNOK with anxiety disorder – proceed with notification accompanied by chaplain and medical professional, ensure immediate support resources Funeral attendance – authorized to attend regardless of location as part of casualty assistance duties Family pressing for funeral date before remains ready – communicate regularly, explain process, provide updates without promising specific dates Vietnam Veterans Memorial inscription – only combat deaths in specific theaters qualify; this case does not qualify Biological mother of minor child requesting information – provide information only about benefits affecting child (SGLI, DIC) Surviving spouse remarried within one year – DIC terminates upon remarriage before age 57; may be restored if marriage ends Rural area with limited law enforcement – request local law enforcement officer accompany for support and safety Family filing claim for unpaid pay/allowances – provide forms and instructions, assist but family submits claim Section 2: Notification Procedures and Protocols (Questions 21-40) Sequence prior to notification visit – arrive unannounced, accompanied by chaplain and medical officer (MCO 1770.2) PNOK threatens self-harm – activate EMS immediately, remain with PNOK until help arrives (safety priority over script) PNOK deployed overseas – coordinate with PNOK's unit commander for in-person notification by CACO team in deployed theater Mandatory element of notification script – "The Secretary of the Navy extends his deepest sympathy" PNOK provided incorrect phone number for SNOK – document discrepancy, proceed with SNOK notification using best available information ODP designated on RED, living parents – notify ODP as PNOK, parents as SNOK Hearing-impaired PNOK – proceed with notification using interpreter, ensure interpreter signs confidentiality agreement PNOK signature on DD Form 1848 – mandatory acknowledgment that notification was received Body not recovered, PNOK asks if confirmed dead – state Marine is presumed dead based on report, cannot confirm until remains recovered Spouse and parents together at family gathering – notify spouse privately first NOK states "I don't believe you; you're lying" – pause, acknowledge emotion, offer verification through official documentation or confirming call from command Dual notification at same address – ensure second NOK in separate location before initiating their notification PNOK in different state, telephonic notification – verify NOK's identity through third-party source before making call PNOK visibly intoxicated – delay notification, contact Casualty Assistance Branch for guidance Primary NOK present for secondary NOK notification – inform PNOK each designated NOK must receive notification individually in private NOK refuses information packet – leave packet on table, inform NOK it is there if needed Incorrect address for PNOK – contact Casualty Assistance Branch to obtain corrected contact information Minor NOK (age 16) without legal guardian – delay notification until legal guardian present NOK asks "How did he die?" with sensitive details not yet released – state cause of death under investigation; NOK will be informed as soon as official information available DD Form 1300 completion – complete Section I, submit within 24 hours regardless of NOK signature Section 3: Legal and Administrative Aspects of Casualty Notification (Questions 41-60) Marine missing in action, estranged spouse vs. parents – proceed with notification to spouse as designated PNOK on official records Line of duty determination for training accident – whether Marine was acting within scope of assigned duties Authority for providing documentation of death – Privacy Act of 1974 (NOK is personal representative entitled to access records) Notification order missing commander's signature – suspend notification, return to issuing authority for correction Disclosure of Marine's death without NOK consent – disclosure to civilian law enforcement investigating incident Incarcerated NOK – must attempt notification unless court order restricts contact Self-inflicted wound manner of death – distinction between 'suicide' and 'undetermined' based on evidence of intent NCIS investigation – state only that investigation is pending, without further details Minor NOK with divorced parents – notify minor's legal guardian or parent with primary custody Death certificate not yet issued – explain death certificate is state document; offer signed statement of death as interim documentation SGLI proceeds distribution order of death – secondary beneficiary must prove spouse did not survive; federal law preempts state presumptions Divorced parents, mother in US, father in foreign country – mother is PNOK (parent with legal custody or natural guardian under US law) OMPF and death certificate procedures – death certificate state-issued (weeks); DD Form 1300 as interim proof; OMPF requires FOIA request (months) Notification to persons other than PNOK – commanding officer of the deceased's unit (for official purposes) Death gratuity eligibility for legally separated spouse – may be eligible unless separation due to spouse's fault or separation agreement waives benefits Domestic partner under California law – not PNOK unless designated on DD Form 93 SBP for Marine on terminal leave – spouse entitled if Marine elected SBP; if no election, may be eligible for Residual SBP Minor child from previous relationship on DD Form 1300 – must be listed as dependent (minor child of Marine regardless of custody) Will vs. SGLI and death gratuity – will has no effect on SGLI; death gratuity paid by law to PNOK cannot be willed away PNOK requesting body transport to funeral home – coordinate with Mortuary Affairs; remains not released until autopsy/investigation complete; father's preference considered Section 4: Casualty Assistance Calls and Benefits Counseling (Questions 61-79) SGLI designated beneficiary differs from spouse – advise spouse SGLI paid to designated beneficiary; assist with filing claim against estate PADD designated beneficiary mother vs. estranged father – PADD paid to designated beneficiary only; father may pursue claim through probate court Child from previous relationship DIC eligibility – child eligible if Marine had legal obligation to support child (38 U.S.C. § 1310) SBP for separated spouse – spouse is eligible SBP beneficiary unless Marine changed coverage with spouse's written consent (10 U.S.C. § 1448) Death Gratuity – $100,000 paid to designated beneficiary; if none, to spouse, then children, then parents Repatriation of remains from foreign country – coordinate with mortuary affairs to provide PNOK choice of funeral home and transportation options (DODI 1300.18) Spouse fears reprisal from in-laws (SGLI beneficiaries) – advise spouse SGLI paid to designated beneficiaries; provide information on victim advocacy resources Special Survivor Indemnity Allowance (SSIA) – monthly payment to offset reduction in DIC when surviving spouse also receives SBP (38 U.S.C. § 1313) Parents' DIC eligibility – requires proof of financial dependency for at least one year prior to death (38 U.S.C. § 1315) Children's DIC for stepchildren – eligible if Marine had legal obligation to support them (38 U.S.C. § 1310) DIC and Social Security survivor benefits interaction – both fully payable without offset Death Gratuity tax treatment – $100,000 tax-exempt (10 U.S.C. § ) Death during active duty physical training – file claim; death during active duty generally considered service-connected unless clear evidence of misconduct SBP and DIC offset – SBP reduced by amount of DIC; spouse may be eligible for SSIA to offset part of reduction FSGLI payout – terminates upon service member's death; no benefits payable Death Gratuity and SGLI for SSI/Medicaid – not counted as income in month received; counted as resources if retained beyond month of receipt Tax treatment of SGLI vs. Death Gratuity – SGLI tax-free as life insurance proceeds (IRC § 101(a)); Death Gratuity tax-free by specific statutory exemption (10 U.S.C. § 1478) DIC service connection for condition diagnosed after separation – may be established through medical evidence linking condition to service; must be chronic or resulted in death SBP and DIC tax treatment – SBP taxable as income; DIC tax-free Section 5: Casualty Assistance Calls and Benefits Counseling (Questions 80-89) SBP/DIC offset for spouse and children – SBP reduced dollar-for-dollar by DIC received by spouse; children's DIC unaffected Former spouse SBP eligibility with remarriage before age 55 – ineligible (remarriage before 55 terminates eligibility) Death Gratuity designated beneficiary spouse, minor children from previous relationship – paid exclusively to designated beneficiary; children have no claim DIC for 'helpless child' (disability began at age 19) – eligible because disability began before age 21 and child incapable of self-support TRICARE coverage for surviving spouse (age 45) – TAMP for 180 days, then TRICARE Prime or Select until age 65, then TFL SBP and DIC for retiree's surviving spouse (age 60) – SBP reduced by DIC; SSIA partially offsets reduction SGLI beneficiary designation trust – SGLI proceeds paid to trust as designated Death Gratuity, unpaid pay/allowances tax treatment – Death Gratuity tax-free; unpaid pay/allowances taxable as ordinary income IRR death from heart attack – DIC requires service-connection determination; SBP not available (no retirement election) Non-US citizen spouse residing overseas – eligible for DIC and Death Gratuity in full regardless of citizenship or residence Section 6: Communication and Interpersonal Skills (Questions 90-109) Agency representative interrupts others – restate interrupted person's point and invite them to continue (model respectful turn-taking) Diverse cultural backgrounds – adapt delivery based on cultural norms regarding mourning, family hierarchy, emotional expression Distraught family member refusing identification – active listening with reflective statements that validate emotions Team with different communication styles – adapt communication methods to each member's style Widow expressing anger at military – acknowledge anger without becoming defensive ("I hear how angry you are, I am here to support you") Collaborative problem-solving for resource allocation dispute – brainstorm multiple solutions without initial evaluation, then jointly select best option High-context culture, indirect communication – recognize indirectness as sign of respect; use open-ended, non-confrontational questions Briefing senior leaders – begin with bottom line (key conclusion/recommendation), then provide supporting details (BLUF) Team debrief with frustration – use 'I' statement describing observed behavior, inviting reflection without accusation Non-native English speaker – use plain language, avoid idioms, use teach-back techniques to confirm comprehension NOK with acute distress (hyperventilation, trembling) – proceed at slower pace, use simple language, allow pauses (do not suspend unless medical emergency) Divorced parents in different states – notify parent listed as PNOK in person first; work with that parent to inform other parent Spouse with complicated grief (guilt, avoidance) – gently reflect statements back, ask open-ended questions about guilt and avoidance Family member skeptical of military – acknowledge and validate anger while remaining neutral about military Death by suicide – state cause of death directly and factually without euphemisms during initial notification Large extended family asking simultaneous questions – speak with primary NOK privately first, then address group Limited English proficiency with interpreter – address spouse directly, maintain eye contact, allow interpreter to translate sequentially Angry family member claiming insufficient support – listen actively without interrupting, reflect feelings, ask how they would like to proceed Primary NOK staring blankly after news – remain silent, maintain supportive presence, wait for NOK to initiate interaction Remains identified after period of uncertainty – state news clearly and compassionately, allow family to express emotions without rushing to next steps Section 7: Grief and Bereavement Support (Questions 110-127) Persistent yearning, preoccupation, identity disruption, emotional numbness lasting 14 months – Prolonged Grief Disorder (DSM-5-TR) Cultural mourning rituals (daily grave visits for one year) – validate practices, assist in coordinating additional memorial activities within policy Mother with survivor guilt and avoidance – survivor guilt and avoidance Dual Process Model (DPM) vs. stage models – oscillation between loss-oriented and restoration-oriented stressors Parent says "I feel like I'm going crazy" – "You're not crazy; these feelings are a normal part of grief" (normalizing) Bereavement support group effectiveness measure – pre- and post-intervention scores on Inventory of Complicated Grief (ICG) Bereaved sibling using alcohol excessively and withdrawing – nonmaleficence (avoiding harm) Combat death increased risk factor for complicated grief – lack of physical body for burial Child aged 10 bereavement intervention – provide journal, suggest writing letters to deceased (developmentally appropriate) Service member says "I don't have time to grieve; we have a mission" – "It's okay to set grief aside for now, but find a private moment to acknowledge it later" Family urging widow to discard belongings within first month – Klass, Silverman, Nickman's continuing bonds theory (ongoing connection normative) Persistent yearning, preoccupation, identity disruption, disbelief for 8 months – Prolonged Grief Disorder (DSM-5-TR) Research with recently bereaved – informed consent emphasizing voluntary nature and potential for emotional distress Widow says "I don't want the kids to see me cry; I need to be strong" – children benefit from seeing parent model authentic grief (normalizes emotional expression) Parent hears deceased son's voice – common sensory experience in grief (transient, non-pathological) Dual process model oscillation – widow spends morning crying while looking at photos, then goes for walk with friend discussing future travel plans Disenfranchised grief example – former partner not invited to funeral by legal next of kin Stepped-care model to reduce risk of complicated grief – universal support with targeted interventions for those at risk Section 8: Documentation and Reporting Requirements (Questions 128-147) Conflicting command and medical examiner reports – submit DD Form 1300 with manner of death 'pending further investigation,' annotate command's report in remarks Psychotherapy notes under HIPAA – exclude from report; NOK must submit separate HIPAA authorization Incomplete toxicology reports for LOD determination – note discrepancy in executive summary, recommend updated LOD determination upon receipt of complete toxicology Host nation investigation report unavailable – submit DD Form 2063 with notation that host nation report unavailable, attach memorandum explaining efforts to obtain Hearsay witness statement – include but clearly label as hearsay and note lack of firsthand knowledge BAC above legal limit – include in remarks with note that it is subject to LOD determination DCIPS rejects submission due to missing optional field – enter placeholder 'Unknown' or 'Pending' and submit Foreign national Marine, embassy requests report – provide after obtaining signed release from NOK Incorrect time of injury – submit summary with corrected time and include explanation of correction Potential fratricide, gag order in place – submit interim report with statement that further details unavailable due to ongoing investigation and gag order Telephonic conversation documentation – enter chronological log entry in CRS within 24 hours, noting only factual statements without opinion Backdated CRS entries – violation of CAP standards for contemporaneous documentation Final report mandatory element – itemized list of all financial benefits disbursed (amounts and dates) NOK dissatisfaction with funeral home – document objectively, noting date and time, factual summary without personal opinion Continuity of Care section purpose – ensure another CACO can seamlessly assume case if needed Error in casualty report date of birth – make correction directly in CRS, add notation in remarks field explaining change Authoritative source for NOK identity – DD Form 93 (Record of Emergency Data) Training accident report mandatory element – statement confirming death is not result of misconduct Home visit documentation NOT required – CACO's personal assessment of NOK's financial needs Subpoena for case file – consult servicing legal office before releasing any documents Section 9: Ethical and Confidentiality Issues (Questions 148-167) News reporter call less than 12 hours after notification – decline to release information, refer to Public Affairs Office (24-hour no-release period) Spouse confides domestic violence history, command security clearance review – explain duty to report, seek permission to disclose only relevant facts Divorced parents with contentious relationship, father requests documentation – release to both parents equally (equal legal standing as NOK) Therapist reports widow suicidal ideation, no consent – encourage therapist to have widow sign release; if refuses, consider duty to warn under state law Commanding officer requests full report for memorial ceremony, spouse not authorized – redact personal information, provide only official death details Fellow CACO sharing case details on social media – violation of Privacy Act and ethical duty to protect family confidentiality Same-sex partner designated in will, biological parents demand information – recognize partner as authorized representative (will); limit information to parents as required by law Pregnant widow asks to keep confidential from in-laws – neither confirm nor deny; explain cannot disclose personal information without consent Subpoena for all records, family objects – consult SJA to determine if records protected by privilege or motion to quash warranted Spouse wants eulogy including classified mission details – advise spouse information classified cannot be disclosed; offer to help craft eulogy using non-classified details Family member requests official casualty report – consult Casualty Assistance Branch and legal counsel to determine releasable information Marine's mental health records: spouse requests, commander orders denial – seek guidance from Staff Judge Advocate to resolve conflict Sealed envelope marked 'Attorney-Client Privilege' – contact Marine's former attorney to determine handling School counselor requests information about minor child – must obtain written consent from surviving parent before disclosing any information Journalist requests interview with family before notification – refuse to confirm details, advise journalist notification pending Family asks to delete private messages revealing extramarital affair – refuse to delete; advise family all content must be preserved for potential legal/administrative purposes Marine single parent, will names sibling executor, absent biological parent demands information – consult executor and unit legal office to determine appropriate disclosure Spouse requests cause of death listed as 'classified' – list actual cause of death (DD Form 1300 must be accurate) Fellow CACO sharing case details on social media (private group) – report behavior to supervisor or unit privacy officer immediately Foreign national spouse requests unencrypted email – seek guidance from unit information security officer on balancing family needs with security requirements Section 10: Coordination with Military and Civilian Agencies (Questions 168-187) Coordination with FEMA, local law enforcement, Red Cross – Privacy Act of 1974 (applies to federal agencies and contractors) Local coroner unwilling to release remains – refer matter to JAG to negotiate with coroner Civilian agency refuses to share classified information – establish Special Access Program (SAP) with joint oversight Transportation of remains across state lines (embalming fluids) – DOT for hazardous materials School district requests grief counseling funding – Department of Education's Project SERV ICS multi-agency response, military-civilian coordination – Liaison Officer (LOFR) Civilian medical examiner different database system – NIEM (National Information Exchange Model) Civilian agency releases name to press before NOK notification – breach of Privacy Act of 1974 Civilian police search warrant for military quarters without coordination – exclusive federal jurisdiction over military installations Hospital cites HIPAA for refusing records – disclosure to coroner or medical examiner for identification purposes (HIPAA exception) Conflicting guidance from Marine Corps commander and FEMA – elevate to Joint Task Force commander for binding decision under unified command Department of State requests delay notification for diplomatic clearances – DoD-State Department MOU resolves timing conflicts FBI requests withhold attack details for criminal investigation – provide general information, withhold specific investigative details as requested, plan to update later Local medical examiner refuses death certificate citing state privacy law – HIPAA permits disclosure to authorized military casualty assistance personnel (preempts state law) NATO coalition operation, allied nation insists on notification to foreign-born spouse – allied nation's casualty office conducts notification, provides report to US CACO (STANAG 2066) CVSO requests contact information without signed release – deny request until family signs Privacy Act-compliant release form Joint Casualty Assistance Center director requires waiver for cross-branch notification – JCAC director should formally request waiver from respective service secretaries State governor requests list of Gold Star families – prohibited unless each family provides prior written consent (Privacy Act) Coast Guard investigation report for Marine drowning – coordinate through Marine Corps liaison officer to Coast Guard via MOU VA requests line of duty determination (pending) – provide preliminary report to VA to expedite benefits provisionally Key features: 190+ questions covering all USMC CACO domains Detailed rationales with MCO 5800.16A, MCO 1770.2, DoD policy, Privacy Act, HIPAA, SCRA, 10 U.S.C., 38 U.S.C., and DSM-5-TR citations Quantitative benefits concepts – SGLI, DIC, SBP, Death Gratuity, SSIA, TAMP, TRICARE Real-world scenarios – notification procedures, benefits counseling, grief support, documentation, ethics, interagency coordination Updated for 2026 – reflects current USMC CACO exam blueprint and federal statutes Perfect for – USMC CACO certification, Marine Corps casualty assistance, Navy CAC, Coast Guard, military casualty assistance, Gold Star family support, mortuary affairs, JAG, chaplains Last updated: [Insert current month/year] – reflects the latest USMC CACO exam content outline and applicable laws/regulations

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PCAB -AMO TEST NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM| PCAB
-AMO EXAM REVIEW WITH COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!) — 188 Questions

Section 1: Aircraft Maintenance Regulations and Compliance (Questions 1-20)

1 An aircraft underwent a modification that replaced the original wing skin with a composite material of
equivalent strength but different thermal expansion properties. The modification was performed using data not
approved by the FAA. Under 14 CFR Part 43, which of the following is the most appropriate classification of
this work and the required documentation?

A) Major alteration; requires an FAA Form 337 and a field approval or STC.
B) Minor alteration; requires a logbook entry by an A&P mechanic describing the change.
C) Major repair; requires a return-to-service certificate and a conformity inspection.
D) Minor repair; requires only a maintenance release per the operator's manual.
Answer: A
Rationale: Because the modification changes the wing's material properties and involves a structural component, it
is a major alteration. Per FAR 43, major alterations require FAA Form 337 and either an STC or field approval.
Option B is incorrect because changing skin material is not minor. Option C mislabels it as a repair. Option D
underestimates the regulatory requirement.

2 During a routine inspection, an A&P mechanic discovers that a previously installed life-limited part has
exceeded its life limit by 50 flight hours due to an error in the maintenance tracking system. The aircraft is
currently in service. According to 14 CFR 91.417 and 43.12, which action is legally required immediately?
A) Remove the part and replace it before the next flight, then make a logbook entry noting the error and
replacement.
B) Document the discrepancy in the aircraft maintenance log and continue operating until the next scheduled
maintenance.
C) Submit a service difficulty report to the FAA within 48 hours and ground the aircraft until the part is replaced.
D) Perform an engineering evaluation to determine if the part can be used beyond its life limit under a special
flight permit.

Answer: A
Rationale: Life-limited parts must be removed at or before reaching their life limit. Operating beyond the limit
violates airworthiness requirements. Immediate replacement and correct documentation are mandatory. Option B is
non-compliant because continued flight is not allowed. Option C's service difficulty report is not the primary
action; grounding and replacement come first. Option D is invalid because life limits cannot be extended without
approval, which is not applicable here.

3 An air carrier operating under Part 121 wants to use a maintenance provider that is not certificated under Part
145. The provider is a repair station located outside the United States. Which of the following conditions, if met,
would allow the carrier to use this facility for heavy maintenance checks?
A) The repair station holds an equivalent foreign certificate under a bilateral aviation safety agreement (BASA)
with the FAA.

,B) The carrier's continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) includes the facility as an approved
source.
C) The carrier obtains a waiver from the FAA Administrator specifically for the facility.
D) The facility is under the direct supervision of an FAA-licensed A&P mechanic employed by the carrier.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under Part 121, air carriers must use FAA-certificated repair stations (Part 145) or foreign repair stations
approved under a BASA. Option A correctly identifies this requirement. Option B is insufficient because the
CAMP cannot override regulatory requirements. Option C is not a standard provision. Option D is incorrect
because supervision alone does not satisfy certification requirements.

4 A mechanic performs a repair on an aircraft landing gear using a method that deviates from the manufacturer's
maintenance manual. The repair is not listed as a minor repair in Advisory Circular 43-210. Which of the
following actions must the mechanic take to ensure regulatory compliance?
A) Obtain prior FAA approval via a field approval process and document the repair on FAA Form 337.
B) Complete the repair and test it per the operator's approved data, then make a logbook entry.
C) Contact the manufacturer for a technical deviation approval and record the deviation in the maintenance
record.
D) Classify the repair as minor if it does not affect flight characteristics, and proceed without FAA approval.
Answer: A
Rationale: Since the repair deviates from approved data and is not listed as minor, it is a major repair requiring FAA
approval via field approval or STC, and must be documented on Form 337. Option B is incorrect because only
minor repairs can be done with approved data without prior FAA approval. Option C is not a recognized process;
manufacturers cannot grant regulatory approval. Option D is incorrect because the classification is not based solely
on flight characteristics; the deviation itself makes it major.

5 An aircraft owner wishes to perform preventive maintenance on their own aircraft, which is used for personal
transportation under Part 91. According to 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A, which of the following tasks is
considered preventive maintenance and may be performed by the owner without a mechanic's certificate?
A) Replacing a landing gear shock strut.
B) Servicing the landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both.
C) Removing and reinstalling the aircraft's propeller.
D) Performing an engine compression check and adjusting tappets.
Answer: B
Rationale: Preventive maintenance is defined in Part 43, Appendix A. Servicing shock struts is listed as preventive
maintenance. Option A (replacing a shock strut) is a minor repair, not preventive. Option C (removing/reinstalling
propeller) requires a mechanic. Option D (compression check and tappet adjustment) is not preventive; it requires a
mechanic or repair station.

6 A repair station that is certificated under Part 145 performs a major repair on an airliner's flap assembly. The
repair station's quality control system requires a conformity inspection before return to service. Which of the
following signatures is legally required on the maintenance release (FAA Form 8130-3) for the part to be
returned to service?

A) The mechanic who performed the repair and the quality control inspector.
B) Only the mechanic who performed the repair, if they hold an A&P certificate.
C) A designated airworthiness representative (DAR) authorized by the FAA.
D) The repair station's chief inspector or a person authorized by the repair station's quality manual.
Answer: D

,Rationale: Under Part 145, the maintenance release (8130-3) must be signed by an authorized person per the repair
station's quality manual, typically the chief inspector or designee. Option A is not required; the performing
mechanic's signature is not on the release. Option B is incorrect because a single mechanic cannot sign a release for
a major repair in a Part 145 station. Option C is only required if the repair station lacks certain privileges.

7 An aircraft manufacturer issues a service bulletin that recommends replacing a certain bracket with an improved
design. The FAA has not issued an Airworthiness Directive (AD) on this matter. Under 14 CFR 91.403, which
statement about compliance is correct?
A) The service bulletin is mandatory if the aircraft is used for commercial operations under Part 135.
B) The service bulletin is voluntary unless incorporated into the operator's approved maintenance program.
C) The service bulletin becomes mandatory if the manufacturer states it is a safety enhancement.
D) The service bulletin must be complied with within 12 months of issuance.
Answer: B
Rationale: Service bulletins are not mandatory unless adopted by an AD or required by the operator's maintenance
program. Option A is false; Part 135 does not automatically make bulletins mandatory. Option C is incorrect;
manufacturer statements do not have regulatory force. Option D is a specific time not generally applicable.

8 During an annual inspection, an inspector finds that a previous repair to the fuselage skin was performed using a
flush patch with rivets that do not meet the manufacturer's specifications (the rivet head height is slightly
higher). The aircraft has flown 200 hours since the repair. Which of the following best describes the
airworthiness status and required action?

A) The aircraft is not airworthy because the repair does not conform to approved data; the repair must be brought
into compliance or replaced.
B) The aircraft is airworthy because the repair has been proven by service history; no action is needed.
C) The aircraft may be issued a special flight permit to fly to a repair facility for correction.
D) The aircraft is airworthy if the inspector determines the deviation is minor and documents it.
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonconformance to approved data renders the repair unapproved, making the aircraft not airworthy
regardless of service history. Option B is incorrect because service history does not validate nonconforming repairs.
Option C is possible only if the aircraft is already grounded, but the immediate status is unairworthy. Option D is
incorrect because the inspector cannot waive compliance with approved data.

9 An operator under Part 91 uses a progressive inspection program approved by the FAA. During one of the
inspection phases, the mechanic notes that a required inspection item was not completed due to lack of parts.
According to 14 CFR 91.409 and the operator's approved program, what is the proper course of action?
A) Defer the incomplete item to the next inspection phase and note it in the maintenance record.
B) Ground the aircraft until the parts are obtained and the inspection item is completed.
C) Complete the remaining inspection phases and perform the deferred item at the next scheduled maintenance.
D) Obtain a special flight permit from the FAA to fly the aircraft to a facility where the parts are available.
Answer: A
Rationale: Progressive inspection programs allow deferral of certain items to subsequent phases if documented and
approved in the program. Option B is too restrictive; the program may permit deferral. Option C is incorrect
because the item must be completed within the inspection cycle. Option D is not the standard procedure; deferral is
already authorized.

, 10 A Part 145 repair station performs a 100-hour inspection on an aircraft. The inspection reveals a crack in the
engine mount that requires welding. The repair station does not have a welding certificate. Which of the
following actions is permissible under the regulations?
A) The repair station can subcontract the welding to a certified welding shop and then perform the final
inspection and return to service.
B) The repair station must refuse the work and refer the aircraft to a repair station with welding capability.
C) The repair station can perform the welding if it has a qualified welder on staff, even without a specific rating.
D) The repair station can perform the welding and then have the work inspected by an FAA inspector.
Answer: A
Rationale: Part 145 allows repair stations to subcontract specialized work (like welding) to FAA-certificated
facilities, provided the prime repair station maintains control and performs final inspection. Option B is too
restrictive; subcontracting is allowed. Option C is incorrect because the repair station must have the appropriate
rating for the work it performs. Option D is not a recognized approval method.

11 An air carrier's continuous airworthiness maintenance program (CAMP) must include procedures for ensuring
that all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with the applicable
regulations. Under 14 CFR Part 121, which of the following is NOT a required element of the CAMP?
A) A system for the recording of mechanical reliability summaries and statistical analysis of failures
B) A requirement that all maintenance be performed by an FAA-certificated repair station
C) A program for the performance of inspections, including progressive inspections, if applicable
D) A description of the duties and responsibilities of each maintenance person and supervisor
Answer: B
Rationale: While the CAMP must specify where maintenance is performed, it does not require that all maintenance
be performed by an FAA-certificated repair station; the airline may perform its own maintenance. Options A, C,
and D are explicitly required by 14 CFR §121.367, §121.369, and §121.371.

12 A repair station performing maintenance on a transport-category aircraft discovers a discrepancy that is not
addressed in the manufacturer's maintenance manual. The repair station's FAA-approved procedures require the
use of data that is acceptable to the Administrator. Which of the following sources of data would be considered
acceptable without further approval?

A) A service bulletin issued by the aircraft manufacturer that has not yet been incorporated into the maintenance
manual
B) A repair design approved under an FAA Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) that is identical to the required
repair
C) A standard practice manual published by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE)
D) A technical order from the military that covers the same type of aircraft
Answer: B
Rationale: An STC is FAA-approved data and can be used directly. Service bulletins (A) may require evaluation and
acceptance by the operator. SAE manuals (C) are industry standards but may need to be accepted by the FAA.
Military technical orders (D) are not FAA-approved for civil aircraft unless specifically accepted.

13 Under 14 CFR Part 145, a certificated repair station must have a quality control system. Which of the following
is a mandatory element of that system?
A) A system for tracking employee training and certification that is updated annually
B) A procedure for inspecting all incoming parts and materials for conformity to approved data
C) A requirement that all maintenance technicians hold an FAA Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) certificate
D) A system for conducting random audits of all maintenance work performed off-site

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