Clinical simulation RRT REAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS FIRST ATTEMPT GUARANTEED UPDATED QUESTIONS AND 100% ACCURATE ANSWERS | HIGH-LEVEL EXIT EXAM

1. What is the appropriate pH range for a patient with ARDS? A. 7.10–7.20 B. 7.20–7.25 C. 7.30–7.45 D. 7.50–7.60 Correct Answer: C. 7.30–7.45 Rationale: Maintaining a near-normal pH is recommended in ARDS management to avoid severe acidosis or alkalosis. 2. What is the recommended plateau pressure (Pplat) limit in ARDS management? Correct Answer: C. ≤30 cmH2O Rationale: Plateau pressures should remain at or below 30 cmH2O to minimize ventilatorinduced lung injury. 3. What is the acceptable PaO2 range for a patient with ARDS? A. 40–50 mmHg B. 55–80 mmHg C. 90–120 mmHg D. 120–150 mmHg Correct Answer: B. 55–80 mmHg Rationale: Lower oxygenation targets are acceptable in ARDS to reduce oxygen toxicity and barotrauma. 4. Which signs indicate respiratory failure requiring NIV? A. Bradycardia and hypertension B. Tachypnea, hypercarbia, and hypoxemia C. Fever and cough D. Cyanosis only Correct Answer: B. Tachypnea, hypercarbia, and hypoxemia Rationale: NIV is often initiated when these signs suggest worsening ventilatory failure. 5. Prednisolone is commonly used in acute asthma exacerbation because it: A. Reduces blood pressure B. Provides quick asthma control C. Treats bacterial infection D. Acts as a bronchodilator only Correct Answer: B. Provides quick asthma control Rationale: Prednisolone decreases airway inflammation and is recommended in severe asthma exacerbations. 6. Qvar (Beclomethasone Dipropionate HFA) is classified as: A. Short-acting bronchodilator B. Antibiotic C. Inhaled corticosteroid D. Mucolytic Correct Answer: C. Inhaled corticosteroid Rationale: Qvar is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control. 7. An FEV1 greater than 80% indicates which asthma severity? A. Severe B. Moderate C. Mild D. Life-threatening Correct Answer: C. Mild Rationale: Mild asthma is associated with relatively preserved lung function. 8. An FEV1 of 60–80% indicates: A. Mild asthma B. Moderate asthma C. Severe asthma D. Respiratory failure Correct Answer: B. Moderate asthma Rationale: Moderate asthma typically presents with FEV1 between 60–80%. 9. An FEV1 less than 60% indicates: A. Mild asthma B. Intermittent asthma C. Severe asthma D. Controlled asthma Correct Answer: C. Severe asthma Rationale: Severe asthma is characterized by significant airflow limitation. 10. Asthma symptoms occurring up to 2 days per week indicate: A. Severe persistent asthma B. Moderate persistent asthma C. Intermittent asthma D. Respiratory failure Correct Answer: C. Intermittent asthma Rationale: Intermittent asthma symptoms occur no more than 2 days weekly. 11. Daily asthma symptoms are classified as: A. Intermittent B. Mild persistent C. Moderate persistent D. Severe persistent Correct Answer: C. Moderate persistent Rationale: Daily symptoms indicate moderate persistent asthma. 12. Symptoms throughout the day indicate: A. Mild asthma B. Moderate asthma C. Severe asthma D. Controlled asthma Correct Answer: C. Severe asthma Rationale: Persistent all-day symptoms indicate severe disease. 13. On the Asthma Control Test (ACT), what score indicates well-controlled asthma? A. 5 B. 5–10 C. 19 D. 12–15 Correct Answer: C. 19 Rationale: ACT scores above 19 indicate good asthma control. 14. A normal PaO2/FiO2 (PF) ratio is: A. 100 B. 100–150 C. ≥350 D. ≥500 Correct Answer: C. ≥350 Rationale: A normal PF ratio reflects adequate oxygenation. 15. A PF ratio less than 150–200 usually indicates: A. Normal oxygenation B. Significant oxygenation impairment C. Hyperventilation only D. Metabolic acidosis Correct Answer: B. Significant oxygenation impairment Rationale: Low PF ratios indicate severe oxygenation problems. 16. What RSBI value suggests readiness for extubation? A. 150 B. 120 C. 105 D. 200 Correct Answer: C. 105 Rationale: An RSBI less than 105 predicts successful weaning. 17. What is the minimum acceptable vital capacity for extubation readiness? A. 2–5 mL/kg B. 5–8 mL/kg C. 10–15 mL/kg D. 20–30 mL/kg Correct Answer: C. 10–15 mL/kg Rationale: Adequate VC reflects sufficient respiratory muscle strength. 18. A NIF/MIP suitable for extubation should be: A. +20 cmH2O B. -5 cmH2O C. Less than -20 to -30 cmH2O D. 0 cmH2O Correct Answer: C. Less than -20 to -30 cmH2O Rationale: More negative pressures indicate stronger inspiratory muscles. 19. Wedge-shaped infiltrates on chest imaging suggest: A. Asthma B. Pulmonary embolism C. CHF D. Pleural effusion Correct Answer: B. Pulmonary embolism Rationale: Wedge-shaped infiltrates are classic findings in pulmonary embolism. 20. Which test is commonly used first to detect pulmonary embolism? A. CBC B. MRI C. STAT V/Q scan D. Sweat chloride test Correct Answer: C. STAT V/Q scan Rationale: V/Q scanning helps identify ventilation-perfusion mismatch from PE. 21. What is the second-line definitive test for pulmonary embolism? A. Pulmonary angiogram B. ECG C. Chest x-ray D. ABG Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary angiogram Rationale: Pulmonary angiography is considered a definitive diagnostic study. 22. What medication is commonly started for pulmonary embolism treatment? A. Albuterol B. Low-dose IV heparin C. Prednisone D. Lidocaine Correct Answer: B. Low-dose IV heparin Rationale: Heparin prevents clot extension and recurrence.