ANCC AGACNP EXAM |ACTUAL
500+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1. A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with substernal chest
pain radiating to the jaw, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows
ST-segment elevation of 3 mm in leads V2–V4. Initial troponin is
0.04 ng/mL (normal <0.03). What is the most appropriate next
action?
a) Repeat troponin in 6 hours
b) Administer IV nitroglycerin and morphine
c) Activate the STEMI team for emergent percutaneous coronary
intervention (PCI)
d) Obtain a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: c) Activate the STEMI team for emergent
percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
*Rationale: ST elevation in contiguous leads with symptoms
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indicates acute STEMI. Door-to-balloon time should be <90
minutes. Troponin may be normal initially; do not wait for repeat.
Nitroglycerin is adjunctive, not definitive. PCI is superior to
fibrinolytics if available within 120 minutes.*
Q2. A 68-year-old with HFrEF (EF 30%) presents with worsening
dyspnea, orthopnea, and 4+ pitting edema to the knees. BP
95/60, HR 110, respirations 28, O2 sat 88% on 2L. Which
medication should be held or discontinued?
a) Furosemide 80 mg IV
b) Metoprolol succinate 100 mg daily
c) Spironolactone 25 mg daily
d) IV nitroglycerin drip
Correct Answer: b) Metoprolol succinate 100 mg daily
Rationale: Beta-blockers can worsen acute decompensated heart
failure if the patient is hypoperfused (low BP, tachycardia, cool
extremities). Hold beta-blocker until euvolemia and hemodynamic
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stability are restored. Diuretics, vasodilators, and sometimes
inotropes are first-line.
Q3. A patient post-cardiac arrest has return of spontaneous
circulation (ROSC). ECG shows STEMI. Immediate coronary
angiography is planned. What is the target mean arterial
pressure (MAP) and for how long?
a) MAP > 100 mmHg for 24 hours
b) MAP > 65 mmHg but avoid hypertension
c) MAP 80–100 mmHg with permissive hypertension for first 24
hours
d) MAP 50–60 mmHg to reduce cerebral edema
Correct Answer: c) MAP 80–100 mmHg with permissive
hypertension for first 24 hours
*Rationale: Post-ROSC guidelines (AHA 2020) recommend
avoiding hypotension (MAP <65) and allowing permissive
hypertension (MAP up to 100–110) to improve cerebral
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perfusion. Aggressive BP lowering may worsen neurologic
outcome.*
Q4. A 75-year-old with atrial fibrillation on apixaban presents
with acute left leg pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Capillary refill
>5 seconds. What is the priority?
a) Obtain INR and aPTT
b) Administer IV heparin
c) Emergent surgical consultation for thrombectomy
d) Elevate the leg and apply warmth
Correct Answer: c) Emergent surgical consultation for
thrombectomy
Rationale: Acute limb ischemia with sensory/motor deficits or
impending gangrene (pallor, pulseless, pain) is a surgical
emergency. Apixaban may have failed. Heparin is not definitive.
Do not elevate leg (reduces perfusion).