Page 1 of 78
CARE OF THE ADULT CLIENTS FINAL EXAM
2026| 160Qs&As|A+GRADE
1. A client with heart failure has a prescription for furosemide
(Lasix) 40 mg IV push. Which laboratory value is most
important to monitor before administration?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B – Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
loss (hypokalemia). Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin
toxicity and dysrhythmias.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
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A) Dry, nonproductive cough.
B) Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg.
C) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
D) Angioedema (swelling of lips, tongue, throat).
Answer: D – Angioedema is a life-threatening allergic reaction
to ACE inhibitors. Airway compromise is an emergency.
Rationale: Dry cough is a common side effect but not life-
threatening.
3. A client with myocardial infarction reports chest pain
unrelieved by nitroglycerin and morphine. The nurse notes ST-
segment elevation on the monitor. Which medication should
the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Atenolol.
B) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
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C) Lidocaine.
D) Heparin infusion only.
Answer: B – tPA is a thrombolytic indicated for ST-elevation MI
(STEMI) within 12 hours of symptom onset if no contraindications.
“Time is muscle.”
4. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure.
Which finding is most consistent?
A) Jugular venous distention.
B) Crackles in lung bases.
C) Peripheral edema.
D) Hepatomegaly.
Answer: B – Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary
congestion (crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea). Right-sided failure
causes systemic congestion (JVD, edema, hepatomegaly).
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5. A client with atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. The INR is
4.5. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer vitamin K.
B) Hold the next dose of warfarin and notify the provider.
C) Continue warfarin as prescribed.
D) Draw aPTT level.
Answer: B – INR >4.0 increases bleeding risk. Warfarin should
be held, and provider notified. Vitamin K is given only if
significant bleeding or severe INR elevation (>10).
6. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of
leg pain during exercise that is relieved by rest. This is called:
A) Rest pain.
B) Intermittent claudication.
C) Venous insufficiency.
D) Neuropathic pain.
CARE OF THE ADULT CLIENTS FINAL EXAM
2026| 160Qs&As|A+GRADE
1. A client with heart failure has a prescription for furosemide
(Lasix) 40 mg IV push. Which laboratory value is most
important to monitor before administration?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B – Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
loss (hypokalemia). Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin
toxicity and dysrhythmias.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
,Page 2 of 78
A) Dry, nonproductive cough.
B) Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg.
C) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
D) Angioedema (swelling of lips, tongue, throat).
Answer: D – Angioedema is a life-threatening allergic reaction
to ACE inhibitors. Airway compromise is an emergency.
Rationale: Dry cough is a common side effect but not life-
threatening.
3. A client with myocardial infarction reports chest pain
unrelieved by nitroglycerin and morphine. The nurse notes ST-
segment elevation on the monitor. Which medication should
the nurse prepare to administer?
A) Atenolol.
B) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
,Page 3 of 78
C) Lidocaine.
D) Heparin infusion only.
Answer: B – tPA is a thrombolytic indicated for ST-elevation MI
(STEMI) within 12 hours of symptom onset if no contraindications.
“Time is muscle.”
4. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure.
Which finding is most consistent?
A) Jugular venous distention.
B) Crackles in lung bases.
C) Peripheral edema.
D) Hepatomegaly.
Answer: B – Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary
congestion (crackles, dyspnea, orthopnea). Right-sided failure
causes systemic congestion (JVD, edema, hepatomegaly).
, Page 4 of 78
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. The INR is
4.5. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer vitamin K.
B) Hold the next dose of warfarin and notify the provider.
C) Continue warfarin as prescribed.
D) Draw aPTT level.
Answer: B – INR >4.0 increases bleeding risk. Warfarin should
be held, and provider notified. Vitamin K is given only if
significant bleeding or severe INR elevation (>10).
6. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of
leg pain during exercise that is relieved by rest. This is called:
A) Rest pain.
B) Intermittent claudication.
C) Venous insufficiency.
D) Neuropathic pain.
