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ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam (Newborn Assessment & Care)

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Achieve a Level 3 proficiency on your ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam. This comprehensive 2026 study guide features Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) style questions with verified correct answers and detailed clinical rationales. Master high-yield newborn assessment criteria including APGAR scores, vital sign tracking, reflex evaluations, gestational age classification, hypothermia management, and Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome (NAS) interventions.

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Verified ATI RN Maternity OB Proctored Exam 2026 NGN Ultimate Preparation
Bank: 150 High-Yield Next-Generation Multiple-Choice Questions, Correct
Diagnostic Keys, and Comprehensive In-Depth Clinical Evidence Rationales
for Guaranteed Advanced Student Examination Success




Comprehensive ATI RN Maternity OB Proctored Exam 2026 NGN Ultimate Preparation Bank:
150 High-Yield Next-Generation Multiple-Choice Questions, Correct Diagnostic Keys, and
Comprehensive In-Depth Clinical Evidence Rationales for Guaranteed Advanced Student
Examination Success

,Course & Examination Overview
 Course Title and Number: ATI RN Maternity OB (Obstetrical Nursing)

 Exam Title: Verified Proctored Assessment (NGN)

 Exam Date: Academic Year 2026-2027

 Instructor: __________[Insert Instructor's Name]__________

 Student Name: __________[Insert Student's Name]__________

 Student ID: __________[Insert Student ID]__________

Examination Details & Instructions
Time: - _____ Hours: _____ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully and Answer All Questions.

2. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.

3. Please Ensure all you answer each question below and click Submit when you have completed the
Exam.

4. This test has a time limit. The test will save and submit automatically when the time expires.

5. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course Learning Resources.

Good Luck..........!
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1. Preconception and Prenatal Care

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
lab results requires immediate follow-up?
o A) Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
o B) WBC count 12,000/mm³
o C) Rubella titer 1:6
o D) Platelets 200,000/mm³
o C) Rubella titer 1:6
o Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 or 1:10 indicates non-immunity. The client needs
education regarding avoiding sick contacts during pregnancy and receiving the live MMR vaccine
immediately postpartum.
2. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about taking iron supplements. Which of the following liquids
should the nurse recommend to increase absorption?
o A) Whole milk
o B) Orange juice
o C) Green tea
o D) Iced coffee
o B) Orange juice
o Rationale: Vitamin C significantly enhances the absorption of elemental iron. Calcium in milk and
tannins in tea/coffee inhibit iron absorption.
3. A client at 6 weeks of gestation asks why her provider prescribed folic acid. The nurse explains it
prevents which of the following anomalies?
o A) Congenital heart defects
o B) Neural tube defects
o C) Cleft lip and palate
o D) Pyloric stenosis
o B) Neural tube defects
o Rationale: Folic acid supplementation prior to conception and during early pregnancy reduces the
incidence of neural tube defects like spina bifida and anencephaly.
4. A nurse assesses a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Where should the nurse expect to palpate the
fundus?

, o A) At the symphysis pubis
o B) Halfway between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
o C) At the level of the umbilicus
o D) Xiphoid process
o C) At the level of the umbilicus
o Rationale: At 20 to 22 weeks of gestation, the fundal height typically reaches the level of the
umbilicus, correlating closely to 20 cm measurement.
5. A nurse teaches a client about the indirect Coombs test. This test evaluates which of the following
parameters?
o A) Fetal hemoglobin levels
o B) Maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood
o C) Neonatal bilirubin production
o D) Alpha-fetoprotein levels
o B) Maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood
o Rationale: The indirect Coombs test detects circulating antibodies against Rh-positive red blood
cells in maternal serum, identifying sensitization risk.
6. A client at 36 weeks of gestation tests positive for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). Which
intervention should the nurse plan for during labor?
o A) Scheduled cesarean birth
o B) Administration of IV penicillin G during labor
o C) Isolation of the newborn postpartum
o D) Immediate rupture of membranes upon admission
o B) Administration of IV penicillin G during labor
o Rationale: Intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during labor reduces the vertical transmission of
GBS to the newborn, preventing early-onset neonatal sepsis.
7. A nurse assesses a client experiencing presumptive signs of pregnancy. Which of the following
findings meets this classification?
o A) Positive home pregnancy test
o B) Hegar's sign
o C) Amenorrhea
o D) Fetal heart tones heard via Doppler
o C) Amenorrhea
o Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective findings experienced by the client, such as
amenorrhea, fatigue, nausea, and breast tenderness.
8. A nurse calculates Naegele’s rule for a client whose last menstrual period began on May 10th.
What is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
o A) February 17th
o B) February 3rd
o C) February 10th
o D) January 17th
o A) February 17th
o Rationale: Naegele's rule subtracts 3 months and adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period (May 10 minus 3 months = February, plus 7 days = February 17).
9. A client presents with a history of one term birth, one preterm birth, two miscarriages, and two
living children. What is her GTPAL?

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