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NEONATAL & PEDIATRIC SPECIALTY EXAM 2026 – 200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES | NRP, PALS & CERTIFICATION PREP

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Master neonatal and pediatric specialty exams with confidence. This comprehensive practice exam delivers 200 rigorous questions covering every essential domain: neonatal assessment & physiology (gestational age classification – SGA/AGA/LGA, Ballard score, normal vital signs – heart rate 100-160 bpm, umbilical cord vessels, thermoregulation, hyperbilirubinemia – acute bilirubin encephalopathy, exchange transfusion criteria, colostrum IgA benefits, late preterm infant hypoglycemia risk), neonatal complications & management (NEC – pneumatosis intestinalis, abdominal distension, bloody stools – NPO, antibiotics, surgical consult; NAS – Finnegan score, morphine treatment; IVH grading – germinal matrix, post-hemorrhagic hydrocephalus; PDA – ibuprofen/indomethacin, bounding pulses; ROP screening criteria; apnea of prematurity – caffeine citrate 20/5 mg/kg; surfactant for RDS; congenital heart defects – VSD most common, TGA hyperoxia test, PGE1 for ductal-dependent lesions, TOF tet spell management – knee-chest/morphine; coarctation – upper extremity hypertension with diminished femoral pulses; Kawasaki disease – fever ≥5 days + 4 of 5 criteria, IVIG + aspirin), pediatric growth & development (Denver II domains – personal-social, fine motor, language, gross motor; gross motor milestones – sits alone by 8 months, anterior fontanelle closes 12-18 months, weight doubles by 5 months/triples by 12 months, MMR at 12-15 months, failure to thrive evaluation, DDH Barlow/Ortolani, M-CHAT autism screening at 18/24 months, microcephaly definition 2nd percentile), pediatric respiratory & cardiac (croup – barking cough, stridor, dexamethasone + nebulized epinephrine; RSV bronchiolitis – admission criteria hypoxia 90%, grunting, retractions, supportive care; foreign body aspiration – sudden cough, asymmetric breath sounds, right main bronchus; asthma stepwise therapy, pertussis paroxysmal cough, post-tussive emesis, pneumonia lobar vs. interstitial), NRP (initial steps – warm, dry, stimulate, position airway; most important indicator of effective ventilation – visible chest rise; PPV settings 20-25 cm H2O at 40-60 breaths/min; chest compressions 3:1 ratio when HR 60 despite adequate ventilation for 30 seconds; epinephrine IV preferred 0.01-0.03 mg/kg vs. ET 0.05-0.1 mg/kg; SpO2 targets 1 min 60-65%, 5 min 80-85%, 10 min 85-95%; meconium-stained non-vigorous baby – intubation and suction), PALS (hypovolemic shock most common in children – fluid resuscitation 20 mL/kg isotonic crystalloid; pediatric cardiac arrest most commonly from asphyxia/respiratory failure; shockable rhythms VF/VT – defibrillation 2 J/kg first shock; epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO q3-5min; amiodarone 5 mg/kg for refractory VF/VT; anaphylaxis epinephrine IM 0.01 mg/kg max 0.5 mg; status epilepticus – lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV; Heimlich maneuver for conscious choking child vs. back blows/chest thrusts for infant), congenital & genetic disorders (Down syndrome trisomy 21 – flat facies, upslanting palpebral fissures, single palmar crease, hypotonia, AV canal defect; Edwards syndrome trisomy 18 – rocker-bottom feet, overlapping fingers, micrognathia; Patau trisomy 13; Hirschsprung disease – failure to pass meconium, transition zone on barium enema, aganglionic colon; fetal alcohol syndrome – microcephaly, smooth philtrum, thin vermillion border, short palpebral fissures; cystic fibrosis – meconium ileus, sweat chloride 60 mEq/L; congenital adrenal hyperplasia – salt-wasting crisis, 17-OHP elevated, ambiguous genitalia; Pierre Robin sequence – micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate), and neonatal/pediatric pharmacology (PGE1 alprostadil for ductal-dependent lesions – monitor apnea; phenobarbital 20 mg/kg first-line for neonatal seizures; epinephrine for anaphylaxis 0.01 mg/kg IM; surfactant for RDS in prematurity; morphine for neonatal abstinence syndrome; caffeine for apnea of prematurity; vitamin K IM at birth; RSV palivizumab 15 mg/kg IM monthly for high-risk infants). Each question includes a verified correct answer and a detailed rationale teaching the why behind every answer—based on NRP, PALS, AAP guidelines, and evidence-based neonatal/pediatric practice. Perfect for NICU nurses, neonatal and pediatric nurse practitioners, pediatric residents, medical students, and anyone preparing for neonatal/pediatric specialty certification exams. No fluff—just high-yield, exam-focused content. Download instantly and master the Neonatal & Pediatric Specialty Exam today.

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Page 1 of 38



NEONATAL/PEDIATRIC SPECIALTY EXAM

STUDY GUIDE |ACTUAL

800+Qs&As|ALREADY GRADED A+

1. A late preterm infant (34 weeks gestation) is at greatest risk

for which complication?

A) Hyperbilirubinemia

B) Hypothermia

C) Respiratory distress

D) Hypoglycemia

Correct Answer: D) Hypoglycemia (along with all of the

above, but hypoglycemia is common due to limited glycogen

stores)

Rationale: Late preterm infants have immature metabolic

pathways, poor glycogen stores, and often feeding difficulties,

,Page 2 of 38


making hypoglycemia a top concern. They also have higher risk

of jaundice, thermoregulation issues, and apnea.

2. What is the normal range for newborn heart rate (awake,

quiet)?

A) 80–120 bpm

B) 100–160 bpm (awake); 80–140 sleeping

C) 120–180 bpm

D) 60–100 bpm

Correct Answer: B) 100–160 bpm awake, 80–140 sleeping

Rationale: Newborn HR is higher than older children. Sustained

bradycardia <80 or tachycardia >180 may indicate pathology.

3. Scenario: A 2-day-old term infant has a bilirubin of 18

mg/dL and is lethargic, poor feeding. What is the most critical

next step?

A) Start phototherapy

B) Perform exchange transfusion evaluation

,Page 3 of 38


C) Check direct Coombs test and reticulocyte count

D) Feed more frequently

Correct Answer: B) Evaluate for exchange transfusion

(bilirubin at high-risk zone with neurologic symptoms)

Rationale: Lethargy and poor feeding are signs of acute bilirubin

encephalopathy. Exchange transfusion may be indicated

urgently. Phototherapy alone may be insufficient.

4. The first milk produced by the mother (days 1–3) is called:

A) Transitional milk

B) Colostrum

C) Mature milk

D) Hindmilk

Correct Answer: B) Colostrum

Rationale: Colostrum is rich in immunoglobulins (especially IgA),

protein, and vitamins. It has laxative effect to help pass

meconium.

, Page 4 of 38


5. The normal umbilical cord should have how many vessels?

A) 2 arteries and 1 vein (three vessels)

B) 1 artery and 2 veins

C) 2 arteries and 2 veins

D) 1 artery and 1 vein

Correct Answer: A) 2 arteries and 1 vein

Rationale: A single umbilical artery (SUA) occurs in 1% of

pregnancies and is associated with congenital anomalies.

6. Which reflex is present at birth and disappears by 4–6

months?

A) Moro reflex

B) Tonic neck reflex

C) Palmar grasp

D) All of the above

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