NUR611/NUR 611 Final Exam V2 | Adv
Practice Nursing I Q&A with Rationale |
William Paterson University
1. Which of the following laboratory values is the primary diagnostic criterion for a diagnosis
of Diabetes Mellitus?
A. A post-prandial glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL.
B. A random plasma glucose level that is exactly 140 mg/dL.
C. A Hemoglobin A1C level that is between 5.7 and 6.0 percent.
D. A fasting plasma glucose level that is greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two
separate occasions confirms diabetes. This value represents a significant elevation in blood
sugar after an eight-hour fast. Clinical guidelines established by the ADA use this threshold
to identify chronic hyperglycemia.
2. When assessing a patient with suspected Heart Failure, which physical finding is most
specific for fluid overload?
A. A vesicular breath sound heard over the upper lung fields.
B. A heart rate that is consistently below 60 beats per minute.
C. The presence of a mild skin rash on the lower extremities.
,D. The presence of a third heart sound known as an S3 gallop.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The S3 gallop is a classic sign of ventricular filling into a dilated and
compliant left ventricle. It often indicates significant volume overload and is highly specific
for heart failure in older adults. This sound occurs early in diastole right after the S2 heart
sound.
3. What is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild Persistent Asthma
according to GINA guidelines?
A. A low-dose inhaled corticosteroid combined with a formoterol reliever.
B. The use of a long-acting beta-agonist without any other medication.
C. The daily administration of oral prednisone for at least six months.
D. An as-needed short-acting muscarinic antagonist used every four hours.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Modern asthma guidelines emphasize the use of anti-inflammatory
relievers to reduce the risk of severe exacerbations. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
address the underlying airway inflammation. Combining ICS with formoterol provides both
rapid symptom relief and maintenance control.
4. In a patient with Iron Deficiency Anemia, which of the following laboratory results is
typically expected?
A. A Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) that is significantly elevated above 100.
, B. A reticulocyte count that is very high before any treatment begins.
C. A total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) that is extremely low.
D. A serum ferritin level that is significantly decreased.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Low serum ferritin is one of the most sensitive markers for depleted
iron stores in the body. In iron deficiency, the body lacks the necessary iron to produce
healthy hemoglobin, leading to microcytic anemia. The TIBC would actually be elevated in
this condition as the body seeks to bind more iron.
5. Which medication class is considered the gold standard for the initial treatment of
Hypertension in a non-black patient without CKD?
A. An Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
B. A loop diuretic such as Furosemide used twice daily.
C. A centrally acting alpha-agonist like Clonidine.
D. A high-dose stimulant medication to increase cardiac output.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors are highly effective for blood pressure control and
provide organ protection. They work by blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. This class of medication is frequently
recommended as a first-line option by JNC 8 and AHA guidelines.
Practice Nursing I Q&A with Rationale |
William Paterson University
1. Which of the following laboratory values is the primary diagnostic criterion for a diagnosis
of Diabetes Mellitus?
A. A post-prandial glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL.
B. A random plasma glucose level that is exactly 140 mg/dL.
C. A Hemoglobin A1C level that is between 5.7 and 6.0 percent.
D. A fasting plasma glucose level that is greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two
separate occasions confirms diabetes. This value represents a significant elevation in blood
sugar after an eight-hour fast. Clinical guidelines established by the ADA use this threshold
to identify chronic hyperglycemia.
2. When assessing a patient with suspected Heart Failure, which physical finding is most
specific for fluid overload?
A. A vesicular breath sound heard over the upper lung fields.
B. A heart rate that is consistently below 60 beats per minute.
C. The presence of a mild skin rash on the lower extremities.
,D. The presence of a third heart sound known as an S3 gallop.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The S3 gallop is a classic sign of ventricular filling into a dilated and
compliant left ventricle. It often indicates significant volume overload and is highly specific
for heart failure in older adults. This sound occurs early in diastole right after the S2 heart
sound.
3. What is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild Persistent Asthma
according to GINA guidelines?
A. A low-dose inhaled corticosteroid combined with a formoterol reliever.
B. The use of a long-acting beta-agonist without any other medication.
C. The daily administration of oral prednisone for at least six months.
D. An as-needed short-acting muscarinic antagonist used every four hours.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Modern asthma guidelines emphasize the use of anti-inflammatory
relievers to reduce the risk of severe exacerbations. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
address the underlying airway inflammation. Combining ICS with formoterol provides both
rapid symptom relief and maintenance control.
4. In a patient with Iron Deficiency Anemia, which of the following laboratory results is
typically expected?
A. A Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) that is significantly elevated above 100.
, B. A reticulocyte count that is very high before any treatment begins.
C. A total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) that is extremely low.
D. A serum ferritin level that is significantly decreased.
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Low serum ferritin is one of the most sensitive markers for depleted
iron stores in the body. In iron deficiency, the body lacks the necessary iron to produce
healthy hemoglobin, leading to microcytic anemia. The TIBC would actually be elevated in
this condition as the body seeks to bind more iron.
5. Which medication class is considered the gold standard for the initial treatment of
Hypertension in a non-black patient without CKD?
A. An Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
B. A loop diuretic such as Furosemide used twice daily.
C. A centrally acting alpha-agonist like Clonidine.
D. A high-dose stimulant medication to increase cardiac output.
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: ACE inhibitors are highly effective for blood pressure control and
provide organ protection. They work by blocking the conversion of Angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. This class of medication is frequently
recommended as a first-line option by JNC 8 and AHA guidelines.
